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What to open with 21-count?


  

34 members have voted

  1. 1. What do you open?

    • 1S
    • 2C
    • 2N
      0
    • Pass in a voice of thunder
      0
    • Other
      0


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I can live with opening it as a balanced 23 count or 1.

I can't. 1S is just fine. If partner doesn't bid, fine. If partner bids 1nt, 3nt shows my sixth spade.

 

But, I am one of those who treat 2c differently and I mark a + on my scoresheet every time someone opens 2c against us.

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I suggest that anyone who agrees with partner in advance that 1S=11-21 with 5+ spades, rethink it if they don't want to follow their agreements.

 

If it on their CC as such, I recommend that they disclose that their CC is wrong.

Not all 21 counts are created equally. This one has 9PT and therefore qualifies for a 2 opening if the player prefers it. Lots of other 21 counts will have fewer PTs. The CC description you give also does not disclose that a 5332 15 count might not open 1 but I guess you would consider 1NT on that too.

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Our game of % forces us to sometimes choose the lesser of 2/3 evils. With 8 probable playing tricks and all kinds of simple ways to score 10+ it seems vastly superior to try and choose the evil with the best overall probability of success. All of these controls means we can safely play a wide range of contracts even opposite some fairly weak and distributional hands which will never see the light of day if we open 1s therefore choose

 

2c

 

and do not be afraid to show your 6 card spade suit headed by AKJ during the bidding

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I thought it was standard to open 1 in 2/1 then over a minimum reply rebid 2/3NT (2NT for me) to show 20+ and a hand unsuitable for a NT opening (eg 2NT or 2), which therefore implies unbalanced or a 6th spade. What you have will be shown on your next bid of course. That will do me.

 

In methods without such agreements, then maybe other openings come into consideration, but if partner passes a 1 open you are going to be hard pressed to find an entry in responders hand to make 10 tricks.

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1 followed by 3NT would be about 18-19 HCPs.

 

So this hand is too strong. So 2 it is.

1 followed by 2nt after partner's 1nt response is the 18-19. The 3nt rebid is not needed for one of the nt ranges. Hence it can be used to show a 6-card Major and enough for game opposite a minimum response. That's what we have.

 

If partner perchance responds 2/1, we are launched anyway. Oh, heck...why am I saying this?? I really want people to use 2C as often as possible against us.

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Do you play the style common here that any rebid other than 2N after a 2 opener is GF ?

 

Especially at matchpoints, I would rather play 4 weak 2s with no strong forcing opening. Take Acol 2s in a major out of your 2 and it's too rare to be useful.

 

It's reasonably common here for 2C-2D-2M-3C(*)-3M, 2C-2D-3C-3D(*)-4C, and 2C-2D-3D-3H(*)-4D to be nonforcing.

 

(*) Artificial weakness showing bid (no reasonable chance of entry given partner's suit). Some use 3N rather than 3H in the last situation.

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Partner has: xxxx xxx xxxx xx. Oops!

 

And the probability of this hand is ...?

While I do not have an instant odds calculator in my head, I'm willing to wager that it is less than 50% :)

When you finish calculating the odds, then calculate in the odds that the opponents with half the deck and three 8-card fits will remain silent.

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Do you play the style common here that any rebid other than 2N after a 2 opener is GF ?

I play this with 2showing a bust and 2being GF with several partners around here. http://home.comcast.net/~kwbridge/bb/b_2c.htm

 

2-2-2 is not GF for me.

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I'm looking at a 4 loser hand, so will open a strong 2 in a flash.

 

I play a 2 response is waiting and cheapest suit rebid by responder is 2nd negative. Thus, 2 NT is 5-20 unspecified positive. Other suit rebids by responder show a suit feature and are forward going. They are limited by immediate positive suit responses over 2 -- 2 M = 5+ with 2 honors, 1 1/2+ QTs, 3 m = 5+ with 2 of top 3 honors and 2+ QTs. Single raise of opener's rebid promises Hxx or xxxx and 8+ points. Raise to game is a shutout. With other fitting hands, responder makes the 2 NT positive then raises.

 

So,

 

2 - 2

2 - 3

3

 

could be passed.

 

I'm not a big fan of immediate 2 response as an immediate negative. There are quite a few hands ( like two suiters ) where opener faces a difficult rebid problem realizing it will probably be passed.

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