Hanoi5 Posted October 11, 2015 Report Share Posted October 11, 2015 [hv=pc=n&w=skj43ha4d9caqt963&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=1cp1n2dd2hp3d?]133|200[/hv] As partner denies Majors with 1NT you decide to double in case he has diamonds. Would you double 3♦ as well? Do you play the 2♦ double as take-out or penalty? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted October 12, 2015 Report Share Posted October 12, 2015 X of 2D is takeout, now I pass having already shown my hand. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted October 12, 2015 Report Share Posted October 12, 2015 What shapes/ranges bid 1N rather than 1♦ over 1♣ holding diamonds ? In some parts of the world 1N guarantees 4+ clubs so we'd have been bidding a lot more clubs. X is T/O Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted October 12, 2015 Report Share Posted October 12, 2015 I wouldn't have doubled before. I play this double as somewhat penalty oriented. Partner is supposed to pass with a 4-card diamonds. Anyway, I pass now. I try to adhere to the principle of not overbidding more than once per board :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted October 12, 2015 Report Share Posted October 12, 2015 As partner denies Majors with 1NTAs CY already mentioned, the meaning of a 1NT response to 1♣ varies from place to place, not only in terms of shape (does it deny 4 diamonds? does it promise 4 clubs?) but also in terms of strength (8-10 is traditional in many places but not universal). My guess is that you play 1NT as 6-9(19) and no promises about minor suit lengths. That always strikes me as a really bad idea for what is actually quite a wasteful response in terms of space used. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rmnka447 Posted October 12, 2015 Report Share Posted October 12, 2015 Pass at this point. You've showed your hand. It's up to partner to compete further now if we are to compete. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted October 13, 2015 Report Share Posted October 13, 2015 As I have usually played 1NT, responder has 4+ clubs and doesn't have 4 diamonds (or majors of course), so I wouldn't be doubling "in case partner has diamonds". As I have sometimes played 1NT, responder has denied 5 diamonds and has 3+ clubs and I would still be mainly thinking "club fit" rather than "what if partner has 4 diamonds?" Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted October 13, 2015 Report Share Posted October 13, 2015 I wouldn't go so far as some do in arguing that 1N showed 4+ clubs. I think it perfectly ok to respond 1N with, for example, Qxx Kxx Jxxx Kxx. I would not have doubled 2♦. We know we don't want to play a major suit and we sure as heck don't want to defend 2♦! I can't imagine why we'd want to suggest that as even a possibility. If partner's diamonds are good enough to allow us to defeat a 2-level contract when they have 2 8+ card red suit fits then he should have bid 1♦. We wanted to compete to 3♣ and since we knew that, we ought to have done that. Bridge is a complex game but there is no need to make it any more complex than it needs to be. When we have an obvious 3♣ bid, we make it. Btw, the comment above about having shown our hand is incorrect....we definitely have not shown this hand.....we denied this hand when we failed to make the 3♣ call. But the idea is the same....we made a bid that showed values and we have no reason to bid at the 4-level without showing even more. We misbid rather than showed our hand, but never try to catch up once you have done so. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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