Stephen Tu Posted September 22, 2015 Report Share Posted September 22, 2015 IMPS[hv=pc=n&s=sh765d87cakt86432&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp1n(forcing)p3c(GF can be artificial)p4cp4dd]133|200[/hv] 3♣ = can be artificial, doesn't promise any clubs, can be also GF with 4 exactly hearts or near 2♣ opener spade one suiter.Responder expected to bid 3♦ with most hands, so 4♣ is showing probably 7+ clubs though not specifically discussed. You had no way to show an invitational club one suiter directly over 1♠, 3♣ would have been Bergen, so the only option other than 1nt is to GF with 2♣, please note if you disagree with 1nt under these circumstances. Also if you think this hand should bid 5♣ rather than 4♣. What now? What's rdbl by responder supposed to show? What's rdbl by opener supposed to show if responder passes?What's the difference between 5♣ here vs. pass followed by 5♣, without any specific discussion? What were you supposed to bid if the opening leader hadn't doubled to tell herself what to lead? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted September 22, 2015 Report Share Posted September 22, 2015 I use this 3C treatment myself. To me redouble would promise a control, which i lack. Whether 1st or 2nd depends on agreements, but for me it would suggest a stiff. A pass says I have nothing to say, including no heart control....if I cuebid hearts here, that would deny a diamond control. So pass seems about right. If partner continues with 4H, I will bid the slam. Otherwise we play 5C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted September 23, 2015 Report Share Posted September 23, 2015 I'd bid 5♣ previous round having no control in other suits. I'd bid 5♣ now. If 1♠ -5♣ is natural that's what I'd do. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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