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(Almost) the same auction, two different meanings


Jinksy

  

11 members have voted

  1. 1. Auction 1

    • Agree with my X, and I'd pass 5S
    • Agree with my X, and I'd raise to 6S
      0
    • Disagree with my X, but having made it I'd pass 5S
      0
    • Disagree with my X, but having made it I'd raise to 6S
    • Other
      0
  2. 2. Auction 2



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[hv=pc=n&n=skq9763hdaq75cj96&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1sp2c(nat%20GF)2h2s5h]133|200[/hv]

 

At this point, the two auctions diverge.

 

In auction 1, you're playing Fantunes, so with your opening 1 you already showed a hand about a king stronger than a normal opening. Over 5, partner makes a forcing pass, and you X to show a min (agree?). He now rebids 5, showing some slam interest. What's your call?

 

In auction 2, you're playing regular 2/1, so your opening 1 showed about a king less, and partner's GF 2 showed about a commensurate king more than in auction 1. Over 5, P now just bids 5. What's your call now?

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I think I am worth 6 in the Fantunes method, altho I am uncomfortable with the inference that my double showed a minimum. I mean, I think I have to have a pretty specific type of hand to do anything other than double given that we haven't found a fit yet.

 

As it happens, once partner makes a slam try opposite my double, I can afford 6 without leading him to think that I have a huge hand.

 

On the second auction, I have not limited my hand in any way at all, and partner didn't make a forcing pass, so I am not going to encourage him via 6. I am not going to torment him by 5N or any call other than 6.

 

I don't hold a high level of confidence in these answers.

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[hv=pc=n&n=skq9763hdaq75cj96&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1sp2c(nat%20GF)2h2s5h]133|200[/hv]

 

At this point, the two auctions diverge.

 

In auction 1, you're playing Fantunes, so with your opening 1 you already showed a hand about a king stronger than a normal opening. Over 5, partner makes a forcing pass, and you X to show a min (agree?). He now rebids 5, showing some slam interest. What's your call?

 

In auction 2, you're playing regular 2/1, so your opening 1 showed about a king less, and partner's GF 2 showed about a commensurate king more than in auction 1. Over 5, P now just bids 5. What's your call now?

 

Auction 1: We have huge differences in regards to what pd meant by his bids. If he passes 5 he has some slam interest. If he passes and then lifts your double to 5 this is as huge as he can have. Not just some slam interest.

And if pd passed 5, to double should not even be among my options imho. (with the hand I hold). Your hand is not even remotely a resemble of a weak hand. Are you kidding me? You have 3 card support that you did not show, you have void in their suit and you have an ACE in the unbid suit! And pd is forcing passing 5??

 

If I doubled like you did for a momentarily insanity, and he lifted this? Oh I am turning over the bidding box and putting everything I got on the table.(except 7 NT everything else should be waiting for claim after the lead) Let me tell you what would be a minimum for you to hold in this auction. KQJxxx x KQxx Jx (lack of 1st round control in their suit, lack of 1st round control in unbid suit, lack of club support, now I'd double)

 

Auction2: I bid 6

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Follow-up question:

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sj62h62dk86cakq6]133|100[/hv]

 

This was the S hand (pips invented since I don't have the hand saved). Do you agree with S's actions as described in the OP? If not, what would you change?

 

I'd personally pass 5 (predicting the shortness) and correct any bid to 6 by pd. I'd pass now if pd doubles.

If I double due to agreements with xx , I'd correct 6 by pd to 6

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