sukatglf Posted July 23, 2015 Report Share Posted July 23, 2015 Partner, South, opens 2N showing 20-21 HCP. West passes. As North, you hold (S,H,D,C) X, AJ10X, AJ, 10xxxxx. Partnership plays transfers (3S forces 4C bid) and Stayman. With 29-30 HCP points, slam try depends on fit. Do you bid 3C, Stayman, first, and then shift to clubs, or transfer to clubs and then show hearts? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted July 23, 2015 Report Share Posted July 23, 2015 stayman first. Transfer to clubs and bid hearts is a cue not a suit in my partnership. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BillPatch Posted July 23, 2015 Report Share Posted July 23, 2015 First of all I count my hand. 10 hcp + partner's 20-21 = 30-31. Second I note whether we are in matchpoints or IMPs. At matchpoints rejected slam try at 5♣ often will yield a 0 even if it makes exactly 11 tricks, so I'll start with Stayman. If I find the hearts, I'll probably play in 6♥. (Asking for A's or keys if system permits.) Otherwise, I will sign off at 3NT. Maybe at IMPS I would try the same. Since I have more than my share of A's for my points I doubt partner will cooperate with must suitabile hands if I invite(presumably with a raise to game after transferring to ♣). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
eagles123 Posted July 23, 2015 Report Share Posted July 23, 2015 i can't imagine not bidding a slam here, obviously hearts if partner shows them but if he doesn't then there's no way i'm stopping in 3n with such a powerful hand Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BillPatch Posted July 23, 2015 Report Share Posted July 23, 2015 Since we have 6 ♣cards the remaining three seats have a mean of 2 1/3 clubs, a median and mode of 2. If partner has 2 clubs we can hold our club losers to one only if he specifically has the AK and the suit splits 3-2, the AQ, the club finesse works and they split 3-2, or KQ and the J falls doubleton. Roughly one third of the time the two clubs are this good slam has no play because the opponents can cash the ♠A, anther 40% of the 6-2 club slam splits that have ply fail due to off-side finesse(s). For the 60% of the time that the 2NT has 2 clubs, the slam will fail at least 5 of 6 time. Counting only the eight card fits approx. 50% of club slams fail, and there are enough high cards outstanding that substantially less than 100% of the 9+ fits fail in slam. Since a club slam is less than 50% and a 3NT game is certain. 6♣ is normally a bad bet. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SteveMoe Posted July 24, 2015 Report Share Posted July 24, 2015 Stayman then ♣ regardless of partner's answer. New suit is natural and forcing (discard the notion that it denies a fit in partner's major). The key issue is whether partner has wasted values in ♠. Slam is very possible opposite ♠Axxx ♥Kx ♦KQT ♣AKxx or ♠Kx ♥KQxx ♦KQxx ♣AKx or ♠Kx ♥KQx ♦KQxx ♣AKxx type hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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