SteveMoe Posted June 12, 2015 Report Share Posted June 12, 2015 1♥-1N-2♣-2♦ seems about right for this one. If opener now rebids 2♠ responder can pass. A 2♠ rebid by opener needs a GF opposite a minimum NT. Off by an H or so, I'd say.After 2♠ rebid I think 2N is prudent, even if not our favorite gadget. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenberg Posted June 12, 2015 Report Share Posted June 12, 2015 If we were playing Flannery I would open this 2D, since the two minor suit Jacks seem to be not worth all that much more than minor suit deuces. Of course we are not playing Flannery but this still means that after 1H-1NT(forcing) I am not bidding 2S (gwnn already said this, and others seem to feel the same). Now the conditions are that we have no special agreements. To me, that means that 1H-1NT-2S-3D is passable Responder is sometimes dealt six points and six cards. Is he suppose to pass 1H or pass 2S? If 2NT over 2S allowed him to show such a weak hand, fine a direct 3D is forcing, but just as we are not playing Flannery we are not playing that 2NT is a relay to 3C. So I think on 1H-1NT-2S-3D responder can have six diamonds and six points. Opener can then do as he sees fit. The problem with this hand can be traced to the 2S bid. With responder's hand, I would expect game to be likely and I would raise 2S to 3S. Opener does not expect me to have four spades, he still bid 2S over 1NT, if he doesn't want to be raised to 3S on what I have then he should not have bid 2S. I see this as pick-up standard. No special agreements, just reasonable choices (or guesses, if you prefer). And yes, I would have bid 2C over the 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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