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What to show next, absent gadgetry


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I think the technically correct answer is 2N, on the basis that if we belong in diamonds, he should be able to pattern out on the way to 3N via 3, which call would see me driving to slam. Meanwhile, if he bids, say, 3 of any other suit, we play in spades.

 

However, given the conditions of contest, including that speedball doesn't lend itself to delicate auctions and an unknown partner might opt not to pattern out (through ignorance or through fearing misunderstanding on my part), I will just bid 3. I am not willing to bid 3N with this club stopper, and I have an easy spade bid over his stall of 3.

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[hv=pc=n&s=SKJ5HDK97642CT953&d=n&v=e&a=1HP1N!(forcing%201%20round)P2SP?]133|200|

ACBL Speedball, no deep agreements (ie no leb style continuations over reverses). MPs, white vs red:[/hv]

IMO 3 = 10, 3 = 9, 2N = 8, 4 = 6, Pass = 5.

With 45(31) shape, partner might have rebid 2m. With 4522 shape he might have rebid 2 or 2N. Hence, when he rebids 2 he probably has 6 and might also have 5. In the latter case, 4 should be OK. Anyway, contracts should be playable on a 4-3 fit. Since you've already denied 4 , raising niow seems simple, descriptive and constructive.

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This was the full hand:

 

[hv=pc=n&s=SKJ5HDK97642CT953&w=S9632HQ732D53CQ76&n=SAQT7HAKJT9DJCJ84&e=S84H8654DAQT8CAK2&d=n&v=e&a=1HP1N!(forcing%201%20round)P2SP3SP4SPPP]399|300[/hv]

I bid 3 at the table and partner raised to 4. He thought 3 or pass (?) was better. Then he wondered why we aren't playing flannery :)

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I bid 3 at the table and partner raised to 4. He thought 3 or pass (?) was better. Then he wondered why we aren't playing flannery :)

If he was thinking of Flannery, it means he doesn't have enough for a reverse.

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I am surprised. I thought that even here, a reverse promises another bid.

Yes, after a suit response. I recall Fred once wrote about this. Ingberman shouldn't apply after a reverse following a 1nt response. 2NT would be natural so 3 would be nonforcing.

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Yes, after a suit response. I recall Fred once wrote about this. Ingberman shouldn't apply after a reverse following a 1nt response. 2NT would be natural so 3 would be nonforcing.

 

Not necessarilly so.

After reverse 2,rebid-2nt is a natural bid,also is a second nagative bid with weakish hand.

I think the responder is asking trouble if rebid-3 after reverse.

Here I have to say reverse 2 is worse.

What's the exact meanings of reverse 2?

I think :

1- It is a strong hand with 19hcp+,so 2 is forcing a round.

2- It may be a picture bid to show 4-6 distributions in and with some extra values hand,and the opener promise he can afford pd's preference at 3-level.

Actually,the opener can't meet both conditions,so reverse 2 should be unreasonable,of course,the opener should rebid 2 after forcing 1nt.

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I am surprised. I thought that even here, a reverse promises another bid.

 

Not in traditional methods, which still pertain at rubber. If I had the auction 1-1-2with Zia or Gunnar, then 2,2NT or 3 could end the bidding. And in the given auction, I would certainly interpret 3 as an attempt to play.

 

Reverses promising another bid was certainly not a British concept, and absent of playing modified Blackout or Lebensohl, my guess is that minimum bids in no trumps or previously bid suits are still non-forcing in most local duplicates.

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We really do not know what p has for the 2s bid. It is indeed quite probable they have spades but there is no guarantee and so we should try making a bid that will be the most helpful for p overall. (I have seen both hands). IHMO I think 3d is a much more useful bid than 2n or 3s (though I also feel the 2s and 4s bids were umm errr how to say this a tad on the optimistic side (2s = 3 4s = 1). 3d gives us a plausible place to play as well as keeping 3n in play and even bringing 5d into the picture.
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