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What do you bid?


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Will responder always return to 2 with 5? If so, playing 2 with Jxxxx opposite xx is no fun; but if not you would miss the 5-3 fit unless opener raises.

 

Eric

not always, no... when it seems right, yes... judgement call... the point is, you can play in 4/3 or 5/3 by raising (unless responder has 6, in which case he'll bid 2H himself) or 1nt by not raising... some think it's more important to show shape first (ie, deny 4 card or *good* 3 support), regardless of distribution... some don't

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1S does not promise an unbalanced hand. But in my partnerships it carries the same level of force as a reverse.Not standard, I know.

 

With this agreement, my biggest worry is that part holds a semi balanced 18-19 that spins 3N. Sometimes we will rebid 1S on a bare 4333 19 or a thin 18 like AQxx xx AQx AQxx.

The original post explictly noted that 1 is non-forcing

Partner doesn't have a balanced 18-19 count.

The original post said 1 was non-forcing. It didn't deny a balanced 18-19.

 

Opposite a mangy 5 or 6 count with 3 spades, 1 can be a very attractive spot.

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This is a very basic question.

As I like to play

[1] The 1S bid confirms an unbalanced [or semi balanced with values in 2 suits] hand with 4+ clubs & 4+ spades....usually 5+ clubs

[2] with a balanced hand & quite a few semibalanced hands with 4 spades I bid 1NT & use a checkback of some sort over this 1NT.

There seem to be 2 possible bids

[1]1NT

[2]Pass or 2S. It would help to know the strength required to bid 2S rather than 1Sas used by the partnership.If 17+ then PASS is correct , otherwise 2S.If undiscussed I will take my chances with 2S as lots of GOOD things may happen and at worst we will be 1 down.I do not shy away from playing a moysian as many do at BBO

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Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet):

 

1 - 1

1 - ?

You hold:

 

Dealer: North
Vul: E/W
Scoring: MP
QTx
JT9xx
A87x
x
 

 

What do you bid?

Is this a companion hand to:

 

J1086

K106

8

AKJ106

 

from another thread? I guess it can't quite be.

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Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet):

 

1 - 1

1 - ?

You hold:

 

<!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> North </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> E/W </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> MP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> QTx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> JT9xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> A87x </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> x </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end -->

 

What do you bid?

Is this a companion hand to:

 

J1086

K106

8

AKJ106

 

from another thread? I guess it can't quite be.

No, as I said, he had a 4-3-2-4, no 4-3-1-5. Btw, it's a hand played f2f and probably nobody reads this forum except me...

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The original post explictly noted that 1 is non-forcing

Partner doesn't have a balanced 18-19 count.

How does the non-forcing nature of 1 preclude the possibility of 18-19 balanced?

I think with 18-19 they'll bid 2NT and find a fit using checkback stayman...

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