Free Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet): 1♣ - 1♥1♠ - ?(note: 1♠ is not forcing by agreement, you play 4th suit forcing and Walsch)(note: you're playing a 5 card Major system, with ♦'s always 4+ cards, so 1♣ can be a doubleton)(note: 1♠ doesn't deny a balanced hand) -> Chamaco :rolleyes: You hold: [hv=d=n&v=e&s=sqtxhjt9xxda87xcx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] What do you bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 1NT seems just about par. There are hints of misfit, so better put on the brakes. One could also pass, but might miss a game if pd happens to have 3 hearts and an half-decent hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet): 1♣ - 1♥1♠ - ?(note: 1♠ is not forcing by agreement, you play 4th suit forcing and Walsch)(note: you're playing a 5 card Major system, with ♦'s always 4+ cards, so 1♣ can be a doubleton) You hold: <!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> North </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> E/W </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> MP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> QTx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> JT9xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> A87x </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> x </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end --> What do you bid? If the following are true: a. 1S denies a balanced hand ( in Walsh style, opener's suit rebid here instead of 1NT guarantees at least 44 in the suits bids, usually with unbalanced hand OR , if balanced, with concentrated values), andb. 1S is passable then I will PASS. 1- Pard has real clubs, so our singleton is a minus2- Pard is likely to be short in hearts; true, he might have 2 or (for some pairs) 3 , but he might be as well shorter; 3- we have only 7 hcp and the misfit does not justifying reevaluating the hand for distribution; let's stop at the one level: many opps will balance into THEIR misfit contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rebound Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 1NT. Bidding is supposed to be all about describing your hand. Well I have a stop in the unbid suit so I think I'll let partner know now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flytoox Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 1N, no second choice here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flytoox Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet): 1♣ - 1♥1♠ - ?(note: 1♠ is not forcing by agreement, you play 4th suit forcing and Walsch)(note: you're playing a 5 card Major system, with ♦'s always 4+ cards, so 1♣ can be a doubleton) You hold: <!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> North </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> E/W </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> MP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> QTx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> JT9xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> A87x </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> x </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end --> What do you bid? If the following are true: a. 1S denies a balanced hand ( in Walsh style, opener's suit rebid here instead of 1NT guarantees at least 44 in the suits bids, usually with unbalanced hand OR , if balanced, with concentrated values), andb. 1S is passable then I will PASS. 1- Pard has real clubs, so our singleton is a minus2- Pard is likely to be short in hearts; true, he might have 2 or (for some pairs) 3 , but he might be as well shorter; 3- we have only 7 hcp and the misfit does not justifying reevaluating the hand for distribution; let's stop at the one level: many opps will balance into THEIR misfit contract. Pass is too conservative. You have very good 7HCP and game is still possible. Keep the door open. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 Pass is too conservative. You have very good 7HCP and game is still possible. Keep the door open. 1S is a passable bid, and there is clear indication the hand is a misfit (clubs are real under the Walsh assumptions). Opener has less than 18 and probably less than a good 17, otherwise he could jump to 2S. We might *occasionally* miss a 3NT with 24 hcp, but usually in misfit hand it takes more hcp to bid 3NT. A much more likely scenario is opps sticking in balancing over 1S and be punished. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 Clubs may not be real. As Free said, opener may still have a balanced hand, including a 4-3-3-3. Though I agree a 4-x-x-4 is more likely. Still, 1NT is technically correct. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 Clubs may not be real. As Free said, opener may still have a balanced hand, including a 4-3-3-3. Then, to my understanding, it's not Walsh style. In Walsh style, the way I learned it (if I remeber it well, in "Better bidding with Bergen"), opener rebids 1/2NT to show the appropriate range of balanced hand, even bypassing a major. So in Walsh style, a suit rebid by opener guarantees a hand with 2-suiter features (either a 54 or, if balanced, 4432 with concentrated values; with scattered values in 4432, rebid NT) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 You can play walsh in two ways: 1. Bypassing majors always, or 2. Bypassing majors only on the case 1C-1D-1NT. Free seems to be playing 2. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 A textbook 1NT. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 This hand brings up a couple of interesting side questions. First, is there value in playing this 1S rebid as a 100% force and if not what is the top end? And second, could it ever be right to make an immediate raise of spades with 3-card support. If the hand in question were a little better where game is more probable, I might be tempted to raise spades with: Q10xA873A9432x On the auction, pard is more likely in Walsh style to be 5422 or 5431 than to have a concentrated 4432. Might not this hand make more tricks in the Moysian fit? Even AJ93, x, xxx, AKxxx could produce a spade game but NT would be ugly. I'm sure I'm the minority here but I would be sorely tempted to bid 2S on this example hand. :P On the given hand I rate 1N the best but would be very tempted at MPs to make the pass; at imps, I hate to give up on a pard who holds:AKxx, KQx, x, A10xxx and is waiting to show delayed support over my 1N bid. WinstonM Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 1NT for me too, it is way to early to be masterminding about a possible maysian fit game in my opinion. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 I think this is a clearcut 2♠ bid. If partner has a balanced hand, then he also holds a minimum. In this case, we're going to rest in a nice 2♠ contract and be very well positioned to destroy the opponents if they balance. If partner holds a maximum, he is unbalanced with clubs and spades. In this case, the Moysian should play better than NT. Either way, I'm positioned well. Its also worth noting that that the 2♠ bid actually puts some pressure on the opponents. An anemic 1NT or pass provides the opponents with an easy chance to describe their hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 I think this is a clearcut 2♠ bid. If partner has a balanced hand, then he also holds a minimum. In this case, we're going to rest in a nice 2♠ contract and be very well positioned to destroy the opponents if they balance. If partner holds a maximum, he is unbalanced with clubs and spades. In this case, the Moysian should play better than NT. Either way, I'm positioned well. Its also worth noting that that the 2♠ bid actually puts some pressure on the opponents. An anemic or pass also the opponents an easy chance to describe their hands. I bid 1nt here. Agree with all of your premises. Your conclusions are unique and very interesting and have not seen them before. Discussing only the balanced minimum opener case:1) Understand 2s would put a lot of pressure on opp.2) Would you bid the same MP or IMP?3) Why does 4-3 play better than 1nt?4) As in other forum post, why not let them balance you out of 1nt and then rebid 2s and make them guess again at 3 level? Is the opp doubling you in 2s that real of a concern to consider? Thanks in advance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted March 17, 2005 Report Share Posted March 17, 2005 Bidding goes (partner starts, opps are quiet): 1♣ - 1♥1♠ - ?(note: 1♠ is not forcing by agreement, you play 4th suit forcing and Walsch)(note: you're playing a 5 card Major system, with ♦'s always 4+ cards, so 1♣ can be a doubleton)(note: 1♠ doesn't deny a balanced hand) -> Chamaco :) You hold: [hv=d=n&v=e&s=sqtxhjt9xxda87xcx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] What do you bid? 1nt for me, partner is 4/5 in the blacks (or some 4441).. if he moves again i'll show the 5 hearts or 3 spades Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted March 18, 2005 Report Share Posted March 18, 2005 Hrothgar I think this is a clearcut 2♠ bid. I believe their is a lot of merit to the 2S bid, more so at MPs than imps. This hand looks more promising in a trump fit but I would be concerned about getting overboard at imps. Still, I admire the thinking behind this bid. :) WinstonM Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted March 18, 2005 Report Share Posted March 18, 2005 In my partnerships - 2S. The way I play opener is unbalanced with the blacks; neither of my rd suit stoppers is robust, so 2S should play better that 1N. I really can't comment on the problem as originally presented by Free's based on the premise that opener may not have C & S. I stopped bidding like this years ago. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted March 18, 2005 Report Share Posted March 18, 2005 1S does not promise an unbalanced hand. But in my partnerships it carries the same level of force as a reverse.Not standard, I know. With this agreement, my biggest worry is that part holds a semi balanced 18-19 that spins 3N. Sometimes we will rebid 1S on a bare 4333 19 or a thin 18 like AQxx xx AQx AQxx. So I'm a little torn between pass and 1N. As much as I admire 2S its a little rich with a dead minimum and only 3 trumps. The hands that I like a 3 card raise in this instance are typically a Q better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted March 18, 2005 Report Share Posted March 18, 2005 1S does not promise an unbalanced hand. But in my partnerships it carries the same level of force as a reverse.Not standard, I know. With this agreement, my biggest worry is that part holds a semi balanced 18-19 that spins 3N. Sometimes we will rebid 1S on a bare 4333 19 or a thin 18 like AQxx xx AQx AQxx. The original post explictly noted that 1♠ is non-forcingPartner doesn't have a balanced 18-19 count. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 18, 2005 Report Share Posted March 18, 2005 1NT, easy one. Supporting ♠ as opener with 3 cards is pointless IMO, doing it when you know for sure there cannot be a fit.... Oh, well it can be better, who knows. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted March 19, 2005 Author Report Share Posted March 19, 2005 I was sitting west. Opener had a 4-3-2-4. His partner passed the 1♠ bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2♥ was laydown). Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions. About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1♣-1♦, not after 1♥ response. I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted March 19, 2005 Report Share Posted March 19, 2005 I was sitting west. Opener had a 4-3-2-4. His partner passed the 1♠ bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2♥ was laydown). Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions. About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1♣-1♦, not after 1♥ response. I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else. Which is why opener should have raised ♥ when he had the chance! Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted March 19, 2005 Report Share Posted March 19, 2005 I was sitting west. Opener had a 4-3-2-4. His partner passed the 1♠ bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2♥ was laydown). Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions. About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1♣-1♦, not after 1♥ response. I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else. Which is why opener should have raised ♥ when he had the chance! Eric or bid 1nt instead of 1♠ :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted March 19, 2005 Report Share Posted March 19, 2005 I was sitting west. Opener had a 4-3-2-4. His partner passed the 1♠ bid, and they got a bottom (they went -1 tnx to great defense from my partner, while 2♥ was laydown). Whoever claims that your opponents will bid in this situation is playing too much against weak opponents imo, it's completely crazy to bid V vs NV after misfit auctions. About the walsch thingy: the guys told me they only bypass a Major after 1♣-1♦, not after 1♥ response. I don't know who is right or wrong in this discussion, but they seem to play a simple "walsch-response scheme", nothing else. Which is why opener should have raised ♥ when he had the chance! Eric or bid 1nt instead of 1♠ :D Will responder always return to 2♥ with 5♥? If so, playing 2♥ with Jxxxx opposite xx is no fun; but if not you would miss the 5-3 fit unless opener raises. Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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