barmar Posted May 7, 2015 Report Share Posted May 7, 2015 I believe they do have to tell to whether it is an explicit agreement or whether it is an agreement the person asked surmised (and is thus unsure). I don't believe "I take it as...." quite does that.Which Law says this? 20F1 saysDuring the auction and before the final pass, any player may request, but only at his own turn to call, an explanation of the opponents’ prior auction. He is entitled to know about calls actually made, about relevant alternative calls available that were not made, and about relevant inferences from the choice of action where these are matters of partnership understanding.Where does it say that he's entitled to know how the agreement came to be (explicit or implicit)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted May 7, 2015 Report Share Posted May 7, 2015 Which Law says this? 20F1 says Where does it say that he's entitled to know how the agreement came to be (explicit or implicit)?I think you missed my point. "I take it as..." could mean we have an agreement (explicit or implicit) or it could mean we have no agreement but I am making up what I think it means --- out of my own experience alone. The opponents might not be entitled to know how our agreement came to be; but they certainly are entitled to know whether it is an agreement or a SWAG. That is how we know whether we are getting a 20F1 disclosure. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted May 8, 2015 Report Share Posted May 8, 2015 I think you missed my point. "I take it as..." could mean we have an agreement (explicit or implicit) or it could mean we have no agreement but I am making up what I think it means --- out of my own experience alone. The opponents might not be entitled to know how our agreement came to be; but they certainly are entitled to know whether it is an agreement or a SWAG. That is how we know whether we are getting a 20F1 disclosure.If you're totally guessing, you're not supposed to tell the opponents that at all -- their guess is presumably as good as yours. But where is the line between a guess and an implicit agreement? If this is an experienced partnership, a guess will be substantially biased by tendencies you may have picked up subconsciously. And even in a new partnership, you may know quite a bit if you've played in the same bridge circles with each other. When you say what you're "taking it as", you're basically disclosing what you think your implicit agreement is. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted May 8, 2015 Report Share Posted May 8, 2015 If you're totally guessing, you're not supposed to tell the opponents that at all -- their guess is presumably as good as yours. But where is the line between a guess and an implicit agreement? If this is an experienced partnership, a guess will be substantially biased by tendencies you may have picked up subconsciously. And even in a new partnership, you may know quite a bit if you've played in the same bridge circles with each other. When you say what you're "taking it as", you're basically disclosing what you think your implicit agreement is.I won't be convincing you, apparently. I don't assume that the opponent knows the difference between agreements and a guess. When he says "I take it as..." I still don't know if he is describing an agreement. Neither do you. Just because he is not supposed to tell me about his pure guesses does not mean he isn't doing that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted May 8, 2015 Report Share Posted May 8, 2015 I won't be convincing you, apparently. I don't assume that the opponent knows the difference between agreements and a guess. When he says "I take it as..." I still don't know if he is describing an agreement. Neither do you. Just because he is not supposed to tell me about his pure guesses does not mean he isn't doing that.My point is that it the specific wording doesn't matter. You would know or not know exactly the same thing if he said "That shows ...". The way you can usually tell how sure the player is about the agreement is by how quickly they describe it. If they alert late and then do some thinking before coming up with the explanation, it's almost certainly not a firm agreement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mycroft Posted May 8, 2015 Report Share Posted May 8, 2015 I tend to imply my implied agreements. I tend to teach this as an effective, ethical strategy. "No agreement, but <list of explicit agreements that apply here>." Possibly followed by, or solely, <meta-agreements that apply>. If they're very new, or if the agreements are very unusual (we're likely the only pair that plays Keri for 800km in any direction, for instance), I may lead them one more step down the garden path of my logic. That should make it clear what's going on. Nobody seems to mind, except for the people who complain if their opponents can't explain everything. Many of those are prime users of the "no agreement" clause themselves (often with a smile), so I have little sympathy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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