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Imps NV vs. VUL

 

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX

1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S

3C=P=?

 

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

 

so my auction so far is...

 

1C-(1H)-DBL-(2S)

3C-(Pa)-?

 

Now for my bid. I have yummy club fit, I have a heart stopper behind the heart bidder, and I have a maximum for my first double (it is sad partner doesn't fit for my diamonds). I will bid 3, showing a heart stopper, by implication a fit and maximum, and looking for a spade stopper. The club KQx is just too good to tamely pass, even not vul at imps.

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I considered my options for my first bid to be

1. neg dble

2. 1NT

3. 2D

 

Although I have only 3S I don't mind a neg dble, however I would choose 1NT. I can't bridge myself to bid 2D but would not quibble much if my partner did.

 

Hard to know what is best in the second part not knowing how the auction really went. However I would bid 3S over 3C and raise 4C to 5 if we have no S stop. It may go one down, 2 on a real bad day. My best is we play 3NT and scoop up 9 easy tricks.

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What would 2NT be after 1 (1)?

 

Why should I have 1NT as an option with 11 HCP? For me the choice is between double (showing no good bid and less than 4 spades) and 2NT (showing invitational with heart stopper).

 

I don't like a (non-forcing or forcing) 2 with such a bad suit, especially when partner does not rate to have many diamonds in support after opening 1.

 

Probably with only Kx it is best to bid dbl. After (2) 3 (p) I will bid 3 showing a stopper. If partner stops spades we'll be in 3NT.

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Imps NV vs. VUL

 

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX

 

 

 

 

1) 1C=1H(OPP)=?

 

2) assume your LHO bids 2s if possible:

 

1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S

3C=P=?

I bid 2D at first round. After pd's 3C, I bid 3S. pass pd's voluntary 3C? No way! We sure have a game, and even slam is possible.

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Imps NV vs. VUL

 

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX

1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S

3C=P=?

 

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.

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Imps NV vs. VUL

 

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX

1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S

3C=P=?

 

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.

Take a look at page 184, where two auctions are given

 

1-(1)-DBL and

1-(1)-DBL

 

and they say.

What does the double guarantee? What does it deny? It’s probably no big deal, but we would suggest (contrary to popular practice) that double in these sequences should deny a fair four-card major.

 

I agree with all of this but the part about it not being a big deal. I think it is a big deal.

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Imps NV vs. VUL

 

98X=K9=KTXXX=KQX

1C=1H=(YOUR BID HERE)=2S

3C=P=?

 

My bid over 1H was DOUBLE, showing diamond suit and DENYING 4+ and not sufficient values to bid forcing 2. I think this is ROBSON style. The non-fitjump bid occurs by a passed hand and at the three level, or in competition where both opponents have already shown stregth, something that has not happened here.

Strange, I thought that double would show spades (4) and diamonds in Robson's style. I'll have to read his book again.

Take a look at page 184, where two auctions are given

 

1-(1)-DBL and

1-(1)-DBL

 

and they say.

What does the double guarantee? What does it deny? It’s probably no big deal, but we would suggest (contrary

 

I agree with all of this but the part about it not being a big deal. I think it is a big deal.

My book is a translation, so obviously the pages don't match, but I found your quote. Six pages earlier they say something like that:

We believe that informative doubles should define distribution only in sequences like

1C/1D - (1Sp) - Dbl

1C/1D - (2H/2Sp) - Dbl

1H/1Sp - (2C/2D) - Dbl

where the double should guarantee four (or five) cards in the unbid major. Otherwise you would hamper your constructive (and competitive) bidding, which often will be targeted towards finding a major fit.

Obviously they suggest different action after 1H and after 1Sp intervention, and I missed the difference.

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