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forcing auction?


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1H (1N) dbl P

P (2D) P

 

is pass forcing? Are we committed to take the bid or double for penalties or can the opponents sometimes escape?

 

My thought would be that we are in a force through some level of bidding but not thereafter. For example, we ought not let the opponents play 2D but might let them play 3D undoubled.

 

1H (1N) dbl (2D)

P (3D) P P ?

 

seems like this should not be forcing.

 

What do others think?

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I've wrestled with this problem for a long time. I think Frances and Justin's agreements are both absolutely fine, and are not particularly better or worse than mine in isolation, but I think I mine is better as a meta-solution.

 

Play double as forcing up to 2 of our "suit" and non-forcing if higher. Where pass is forcing, play double for penalties (but sticking to take-out is fine). The point is, say it goes 1-1NT-X-2C-?, if my pass is not forcing, I am not exactly going to be happy on a range of hands. And it hardly seems likely that a forcing pass will get us in trouble.

 

Contrast this with the auction 1NT(weak)-X-2m-p, which quite a lot of partnerships play as forcing. This is absurd for a couple of big reasons. Firstly, we often don't have the balance, and secondly, they are frequently bidding a short suit and planning an escape. To counter both strategies a non-forcing pass is mandatory, imo.

 

In the auction where they raise to 3, pass should definitely be non-forcing and double for take-out. Say opener is 4513, who knows what kind of result you can hit by doubling. But as long as you now what double means, you should be on firm ground.

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Responder's double only shows 9+hcp,after 2,responder's pass also shows his hand without exact next bid and deny 4-card holding since the second double of responder often shows penalty with 4-card .

So I think if responder's pass often can be regarded as semi-forcing, double by opener should be cooperative.

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