Conventional

[Chris3875]

North opened the bidding 1NT (15-17) and South responded 4C (Gerber). North bid 2S, not accepted by LHO. Unfortunately, on the day, the director did not ask North why he bid 2S, just assumed he had misread the written bidding as 2C (Stayman).

 

Scenario 1 - North meant to bid 4S showing 2 aces - am I correct in thinking he can now bid 4S and the auction continues without penalty ?

 

Scenario 2 - North thought partner had bid 2C (Stayman) so his 2S response was intended and insufficient. If he now changes his bid to 4S does it become a conventional response to the Gerber ace ask? I have no idea whether he actually had 2 aces in his hand or not. I also don't know what the composition of South's hand was - he may have had a long minor intending to bid 6C or 6D or, in fact, ANYTHING - who knows. My feeling is that North is caught between a rock and a hard place and that any 4-level bid becomes a conventional response to South's 4C.

 

I was asked my opinion - but feel I am missing a bit of vital information. Help !

[blackshoe]

If North's 2♠ was unintended he can change it without penalty. Law 25A.

 

If North misread the auction and thought he was responding to Stayman, any legal call he makes will require that partner pass for the rest of the auction. Law 27B2.

 

Director should, of course, investigate, not make assumptions.

[Lanor Fow]

In scenario 2, given the ruling that Blackshoe has posted, I would find it difficult to imagine any 4 level correction being artificial, given partner has to pass. In this situation, you normally look to place the contract as best you can.

[Chris3875]

Thanks blackshoe and Lanor Fow - I guess I was trying to think of a response from North that wouldn't bar partner Lanor and as far as I could see there is none !