1 1/2 stops??

[Liversidge]

I know the definition of a stop in No Trumps is roughly a holding that stops the opponents running a long suit straight off the top. It has taken me quite a time to find an explanation of a 1/2 stop, such as when bidding 4th suit forcing with a half stop asking if partner also has at least a half stop, which, in combination is equivalent to a full stop. So Qx and Jxx are half stops because in combination they stop a run, and if you hold either combination you can give a positive resoinse and bid No Trumps.

 

Today I have read that that to overcall a suit in No Trumps you ideally need 1 1/2 stops at the 2 or 3 level in addition to the required point count, but no explanation as to what means. For example, is Kxxx 1 1/2 stops and why / why not.

 

It is frustrating that practically every author who mentions the need for part stops just assumes that novices will know what is meant without examples or explanations of why.

 

Advice much appreciated thanks.

 

PS: I know that experts will not tie themselves to rigid rules like this but they are a good starter for novices.

[Bbradley62]

It's strictly arithmetic. As you say, if I can stop the suit once in my own hand, I have 1 full stop; if I can't quite stop the suit by myself by can do so with some help from you, I have 1/2 stop. If I can stop the suit twice in my own hand, I have 2 full stops; if I have more than one full stop but less than 2 full stops, I have 1.5 stops. This might be KQx, where I certainly can stop the suit once, and can stop the suit twice if either the A is conveniently located or if you have J.

 

Edit: I would probably count KQx as 2 stops if my RHO has bid that suit.

[Liversidge]

The idea of a half stop makes sense to me only if you know partner also has a half stop so that the partnership has a whole stop. So if partner tells me he has at least a half stop and I have Jxx then I know he must have Qx at least. If Qx and Jxx are minimum half stops can I assume that any holding opposite either that provides a combined two stops has 1 1/2 stops on its own?

For example, opposite Jxx a holding of AQx, KQx, QTxx, and opposite Qx a holding of AJx, KJx, KTxx?

 

Then there's the matter of how good the stop is. T9876 is a stop of sorts but my opponents might take four tricks first. Qxxx may or may not provide a stop, depending a lot on who bid the suit, RHO or LHO.

 

Does anyone know of any good references on evaluating hands for 0stops?

[WesleyC]

In answer to your question: the idea of 1.5 stops doesn't exist in modern bridge.

 

These days, no-trump overcalls are more about describing your high card values than showing a number of stoppers.

[Liversidge]

In answer to your question: the idea of 1.5 stops doesn't exist in modern bridge.

 

These days, no-trump overcalls are more about describing your high card values than showing a number of stoppers.

 

It appears in a book by Sandra Landy, Mark Horton and Barbar Seagram, published in 2006, "Bridge Conventions for Acol Players" :

Page 54 - No Trump responses to a takeout double: 11-13 points, with 1 1/2 stoppers in opponents' suit, bid 2NT

I suspect these eminent bridge players would not appreciate being written off so dismissively.

[NickRW]

Does anyone know of any good references on evaluating hands for 0stops?

 

I am not sure there is (or indeed can be) any definitive reference. This is something you have to work out at the table. If RHO bids a suit and your holding is AQx then most people will think (hope) that it is a double stop. If LHO bid the suit, then it is a single stop.... but, if you're going to be playing the contract i.e. the lead will be from LHO to you, then you're probably going to think of it as a double stop. However, absent any bidding by opps, then you're probably right to think of this suit as having 1.5 stops.

 

Similar thinking will lead you to conclusions about other combinations in the context of who has shown what.

 

This topic often comes up in relation to bidding or inviting 3NT. It has to be remembered that 3NT is something of a gamblers game with a lot riding on the opening lead and the lie of the cards (i.e. don't be too down on yourself or your bidding judgement if you get it wrong sometimes - as you long as you come out on top more often than not)

[Liversidge]

I liked the way a half stop was described when using 4th suit forcing - where if you have a half stop and partner has a half stop then you have a definite full stop between you, with a half stop defined as either Qx or better, or Jxx or better, because if you have one and partner has one then he must have the other one as your opponents cannot take more than two tricks off the top. I have come across this explanation more than once, and have found it easy to remember as it is based on logic rather than what experts refer to as common sense or judgment. I can also recognise one stop or two stops in one hand. I was just hoping that the idea of 1 1/2 stops could also be explained in a similar way - i.e. in the context of both hands. Having thought about it I presume that when 1 1/2 stops is referred to it must be in connection with a 1/2 stop (Qx or Jxx) in the other hand, so any combined holding that can stop once, give the lead away, and then stop a second time.

I hoped that as several authors had explained what a half stopper is so neatly, perhaps someone had done the same for 1 1/2 stoppers. Maybe I will try emailing Sandra Landy!!

[akwoo]

Your explanation of one and a half stops is correct, but if you think about it further, you'll realize that hands with 1.5 stops will always, if opponents' cards are placed right, end up with a second stop just because of that.

 

For example:

 

AQ doubleton is 1.5 stops (can always stop if P has Jxx) - but becomes 2 stops if RHO has the K.

 

KTx is 1.5 stops (2 stops if partner has Qx) - but becomes 2 stops if RHO has Q or J.