Who's to Blame?

[JmBrPotter]

Since partner and I open balanced 10-14 counts with 7+ 3-2-1 points with 1NT, our auction would have been either:

 

Pass-(Pass)-1NT-All Pass

 

. . . or . . .

 

Pass-(Pass)-1NT<1>-Pass

2♣<2>-(Pass)-2♦<3>-Pass

2♠<4>-(Pass)-2NT<5>-All Pass

 

<1> 10-14 HCP in a balanced hand

<2> Do you have a 5-card major?

<3> No

<4> I have 0-3 ♥ cards with 4 ♠ cards and game invitational or stronger values

<5> I have a minimum with 2 or 3 ♠ cards

 

Opposite a passed partner, the West hand is not going past a partscore. Using 2/1, Acol, SAYC, or similar methods I would pass (likely at unfavorable vulnerability) or open 1♣ (likely at equal or favorable vulnerability). 1♣ is probably a more useful lead director than 1♦ in the likely event that North has a good hand and North-South buy the contract. If partner responded to a 1♣ opening, I would pass.

 

Note that the powder puff 1NT opener has good preemptive value and probably leads to a sane to semi-sane contract with good chances to avoid the -200 result for -2 vulnerable. 1NT might even go +90 or +120 for a very good score on a board that will pass out at many tables. The possible 2NT contract is more problematic. It might easily go -100 for a zero, but +120 for a top is not an impossible outcome. Defending 2NT on 22 HCP with 18 HCP may give the 8th trick away on the opening lead.

 

If the IMPs are a team event (not IMP Pairs), the third seat powder puff 1NT opening may put irresistible pressure on North to do something that turns out poorly. That opening will certainly make the board more interesting than the fairly likely "All Pass" auction at the other table.

 

Thus, I blame neither player while casting stones at the bidding methods which forced West into the distasteful choice between passing and opening 1♦.

[Cyberyeti]

Since partner and I open balanced 10-14 counts with 7+ 3-2-1 points with 1NT, our auction would have been either:

 

 

So what do you do with KQJx x2 J109, Jx ? pass the 14 count with 6 3-2-1 points ? or open something else ?

 

K&R gives the hand you open in 3rd seat where double is more likely as 9.65 points, the hand you passed as 10.00

[MrAce]

I really disagree with the "opener should bid 2 NT" idea.

 

• Dbl could be made with 7+ hcp and 2 NT would play very poorly.
• Playing a 4-3 ♠ fit is not that bad, we all play frequently in our daily bridge life.
• Responder can have 5 card spades which was not good enough to bid 2♠ at the first place.
• It is easy to bid 2 NT by W, when we know that pd will rescue us with 3♦ and he will always make a good judgement and won't raise to 3 NT with 11 hcp.

To me bidding 2 NT with W hand would be much worse than his initial opening, even if you decided that opening was a mistake.

[MrAce]

Fwiw, i set up a poll in BW, to see what people bid with W hand over the double, when they don't see their pd's hand.

 

http://bridgewinners...g-problem-7405/

[rhm]

I really disagree with the "opener should bid 2 NT" idea.

 

• Dbl could be made with 7+ hcp and 2 NT would play very poorly.
• Playing a 4-3 ♠ fit is not that bad, we all play frequently in our daily bridge life.

Yes we do. The difference is that I raise with three cards and ruffing values, when responder has shown at least 4 cards in a major, but I will bid 3 card suits when partner shows less than five only as a last resort.
Three card support in a 4333 hand tends to play poorly, in particular if you are outgunned and one opponent has preempted and bad splits are more likely.
Assume we are outgunned. I can see no good reason why 2♠ should play better on average than 2 NT.
I see plenty of reasons why it could play much worse.
If we got a jack or a queen more with the same distribution everybody would bid 2NT. It is the normal rebid with a weak notrump in a strong notrump system.
Accordingly if a passed hand doubles at the two level with 7 HCP he must be prepared for this response. Either he has a second suit or he had no business doubling 2♥.
Who forces responder to bid with a balanced 7 count and 4 spades. Why can't he not wait for a reopening DBL or 2♠ bid?
As I said a passed does not get stronger, because he passed already.
The biggest danger is what actually happened: A spade raise. You claim East should bid 2NT or 3♦. But there are plenty of hands where responder has enough for a raise but can bid neither.
For 2NT he needs a suitable hand and for 3♦ he needs diamonds.
 

Responder can have 5 card spades which was not good enough to bid 2♠ at the first place.

This is barely possible given that responder is already a passed hand. Maybe one time in twnety will responder have 5 cards in spades.
 

It is easy to bid 2 NT by W, when we know that pd will rescue us with 3♦ and he will always make a good judgement and won't raise to 3 NT with 11 hcp.

To me bidding 2 NT with W hand would be much worse than his initial opening, even if you decided that opening was a mistake.

I expect to be rescued if responder has a minor. Given his double of 2♥ I expect this to happen often. It will always happen if responder is short in hearts.

If not I expect more than 7 HCP and I understand I will play 2NT and might very well go down. But I also expect to go down in 2♠ and certainly in 3♠.

 

A raise to 3NT is nearly impossible and certainly less likely than a spade raise from a passed hand when we show at best 11-14.

 

Rainer Herrmann

[mikeh]

 

A raise to 3NT is nearly impossible and certainly less likely than a spade raise from a passed hand when we show at best 11-14.

 

Rainer Herrmann

That depends on style. If, like me and, I think, Timo, 2N is a constructive call, showing a good 13-14, then responder should, in fact, raise to game with the hand he held. Your argument is circular...2N could be a non-opening hand, therefore responder won't raise. Mine is also circular, with a different starting point: I assume opener has an opening hand and I require him to have a reason to bid 2N.