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1 NT or 1 Spade?


1 NT or ! Spade?  

41 members have voted

  1. 1. Ope=ning bid?

    • 1 NT
      3
    • 1 Spade
      38
  2. 2. After opening 1 Spade how do you continue if partner bids 1NT?

    • 3 Clubs
      0
    • 2 Clubs
      40
    • something else
      1


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Playing strong NTs, I'd open 1 NT with a 5-3-3-2 hand. But with a 5-4 hand, I'm opening 1 unless the doubletons are very strong and the suits weak (like Qxxxx AQ AQ Qxxx).

 

Unless you're playing some conventions over the forcing NT, a simple rebid can show as much as 16. So the normal 2 would be right here.

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After I rebid 2C, if partner bids 2S, I intend to try 2nt, showing something like this.

Also if partner rebids 2 of a red suit, rebidding 2 NT shows something like this. Note that since you are playing 2/1, your 2 club rebid would often be a 3 card suit.

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[hv=pc=n&w=saqj76ha6dktcqt76]133|100[/hv]

 

Open 1NT or 2 Spade?

 

If you open 1 Spade what is your rebid if partner bids 1 NT?

 

 

[hv=pc=n&e=st5hkqjt54da752c3]133|100[/hv]

 

This was the East hand.

Playing 2/1 and 1NT forcing how does one get to a 4 Heart contract unless it is opened 1NT?

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Unless you're playing some conventions over the forcing NT, a simple rebid can show as much as 16. So the normal 2 would be right here.

 

And a 2nt bid to follow say, 2 shows this and should get a 4 bid from partner next.

 

I didn't vote because I don't mind 1nt at all at mp's or favorable vul.

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I actually find it hard to come up with an auction that would not end up in 4.

 

1-1NT

2-3

4

 

The book auction.

 

1-1NT

2-2

2NT-4

 

One way for responder to be very conservative

 

1-1NT

2-2

3-4

 

Another way for responder to be very conservative

 

With some effort, I can make the auction end in 3NT when opener and responder are not on the same wavelength regarding the heart length:

1-1NT

2-2

2NT-3NT

 

But I don't see any auction that can keep you out of game.

 

Rik

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I could not vote sigh because how I bid depends on scoring---At IMPS I would open 1s and rebid 2n. At MP I would open 1N. The logic behind this is simple at IMPS we need to stretch to some iffy games and opening 1S gives us the opportunity to reach a sketchy spade game and the 2n rebid gives us a chance to reach a sketchy 3n game. At MP where reaching a sketchy game is usually bad the opening 1N will describe the overall flavor of my hand rather well though I am a tad top heavy. If you have not learned puppet stayman it is almost always advisable over 2N+ opening bids and over 1N at MP for hands just like this.

 

A rebid of 2c with this much "stuff" seems wrong especially at IMPS where game is all too easily missed.

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[hv=pc=n&e=st5hkqjt54da752c3]133|100[/hv]

 

This was the East hand.

Playing 2/1 and 1NT forcing how does one get to a 4 Heart contract unless it is opened 1NT?

After the 2 rebid by opener, responder 2 level rebids below 2 NT show no more than 8 HCP and basically signoffs unless opener has extras.

 

Responder rebids of 2 NT or higher show approximately 9-12 and are descriptive. After a 2 NT or higher rebid, Opener with a minimum and no great fit usually passes. In a pinch, if your suit is less robust, say something like xx KJ10xx AQxx xx, you can bid 2 NT. 3 might not play so well with this hand opposite a small doubleton in partner's hand.

 

The hand you pose is exactly the hand for a jump rebid to 3 after a forcing NT response. Your suit will play well even opposite a stiff in partner's hand. Partner with a doubleton A and extras should have no problem raising to 4 .

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One question. What does ACBL 2/1 mean? What los gringos de Norte America play? A specific system endorsed by ACBL(I own the book, Rodwell was co-author)? We gringos want to know. OK,I am as bad at counting questions as counting cards!
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One question. What does ACBL 2/1 mean? What los gringos de Norte America play? A specific system endorsed by ACBL(I own the book, Rodwell was co-author)? We gringos want to know. OK,I am as bad at counting questions as counting cards!

Dickiegera for some reason can only have one subtitle for all his posts. "2/1" is in there for when he posts a bidding question and "ACBL" is in there for when he posts in the laws forum. At least that's how I've always understood it... Makes you really wonder what he did to the poor moderator who put that curse on him.

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One question. What does ACBL 2/1 mean? What los gringos de Norte America play? A specific system endorsed by ACBL(I own the book, Rodwell was co-author)? We gringos want to know. OK,I am as bad at counting questions as counting cards!

 

2/1 is the bidding system. ACBL is the jurisdiction. The comma key is missing, somehow.

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[hv=pc=n&e=st5hkqjt54da752c3]133|100[/hv]

 

This was the East hand.

Playing 2/1 and 1NT forcing how does one get to a 4 Heart contract unless it is opened 1NT?

Simple: East showes an inv. hand with 6 hearts.

How this is done is depend on flavour.

A common method is to play 2/1 GF, except responder repeats the suit.

An alternative route is to upgrade the hand to a gf, the suit is playable

oppossite nothing, we have 2 spades, sso a 2H gf response is not out of the

world either.

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[hv=pc=n&e=st5hkqjt54da752c3]133|100[/hv]

 

This was the East hand.

Playing 2/1 and 1NT forcing how does one get to a 4 Heart contract unless it is opened 1NT?

 

In my opinion the hand is too good for a 1NT opening

Accordingly the bidding should go:

 

1-1NT

2NT--4

 

I see little point in pussyfooting around with a 2 rebid.

I would not object to a 2 response (game forcing) instead of 1NT. in fact I like it.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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In my opinion the hand is too good for a 1NT opening

Accordingly the bidding should go:

 

1-1NT

2NT--4

 

I see little point in pussyfooting around with a 2 rebid.

I would not object to a 2 response (game forcing) instead of 1NT. in fact I like it.

 

Rainer Herrmann

This will be valuable information for your partner, if you ever agree to play 2/1 methods.

 

When you open and then rebid to show 5-3-3-2 and 18-19, you won't have 5-3-3-2 and 18-19.

And when, as responder, you show 10-12 HCP and a good 6-card heart suit (via 1NT forcing followed by 3H), you won't have 10-12 HCP and a good 6-card heart suit.

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[hv=pc=n&e=st5hkqjt54da752c3]133|100[/hv]

 

This was the East hand.

Playing 2/1 and 1NT forcing how does one get to a 4 Heart contract unless it is opened 1NT?

Am I the only one who thinks that this is a very comfortable 2 response playing 2/1?

 

It looks a lot stronger than hands such as

 

[hv=pc=n&e=st5hAKt54daJ2c543]133|100[/hv]

 

that I expect most would happily respond at the two level.

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This will be valuable information for your partner, if you ever agree to play 2/1 methods.

 

When you open and then rebid to show 5-3-3-2 and 18-19, you won't have 5-3-3-2 and 18-19.

And when, as responder, you show 10-12 HCP and a good 6-card heart suit (via 1NT forcing followed by 3H), you won't have 10-12 HCP and a good 6-card heart suit.

A matter of philosphie.

The objective of bidding is to arrive at the best contract with the least amount of information exchanged.

It is not telling everything valuable you can to the defense so that they guess better on the right opening lead and defense.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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It truly is a matter of philosophy. Either you have a system and use it, or you have a system and don't use it, or you don't have one at all.

 

I don't care which you choose; I do care which my partner chooses. I would like to know that when it goes:

 

1S-1N

2N-? and I hold a routine 7-count..what I should do. But, that's just me preferring that partner at least allow enough leakage that I have a clue what he holds.

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In my opinion the hand is too good for a 1NT opening

Accordingly the bidding should go:

 

1-1NT

2NT--4

 

I see little point in pussyfooting around with a 2 rebid.

I would not object to a 2 response (game forcing) instead of 1NT. in fact I like it.

 

Rainer Herrmann

So you would sell a 16 HCP unbalanced hand as an 18-19 HCP balanced hand? And you consider bidding your suits pussyfooting?

 

Wouldn't it be fun if responder's clubs and hearts were interchanged? Or is responder supposed to bid 5 then (instead of the obvious raise to 3NT)?

 

Rik

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Am I the only one who thinks that this is a very comfortable 2 response playing 2/1?

 

It looks a lot stronger than hands such as

 

[hv=pc=n&e=st5hAKt54daJ2c543]133|100[/hv]

 

that I expect most would happily respond at the two level.

You are right, of course about the difference in the two hands. But, that doesn't make either one of them a 2/1 game force response. The OP hand, because a two-step 3H bid IMO is the textbook description; and your example, because it is a textbook example of NOT game forcing opposite today's normal opening 1S bids.

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