waychan Posted March 11, 2005 Author Report Share Posted March 11, 2005 opener:♠Kx ♥Qxxx ♦Axxxx ♣Qxresponder:♠xxx ♥Ax ♦Qx ♣AKJ10xx♠x ♥Axxx ♦Qx ♣AJ10xxx1♦ 1♠ 2♣ pass2♥ pass ?1♦ 1♠ Dbl pass2♥ pass ?1♦ 1♠ 2♣ 2♠pass pass ?1♦ 1♠ Dbl 2♠pass pass ? first hand is opener, sry allwhen 2♣ = F1, IMO, if 3♣ non-forcing why not start with 2♣ then bid 3♣? so double then 3♣ is forcing or non-forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Flame Posted March 12, 2005 Report Share Posted March 12, 2005 Im surprise to there isnt a simple consensus here.This bid is your way to show a hand not strong enough for imidiate 2c, so its oviously not forcing. Many play 2♣ as NF, so as a result of this, Dbl followed by a suit is at least forcing for 1 round. However, if you don't play negative freebids, then this would rather be NF (but what is pass followed by some ♣s?). First of all if someone didnt say he play NFB we should assume he isnt or atleast ask him, but this guy actually said he doesnt play nfb, he said an imidiate 2c would have been forcing to 1 round. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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