luis Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 First disaster: [hv=n=skxxxhajxdkxxxckx&s=saxhkqtxdaq9xcaxx]133|200|[/hv] Bidding was:2NT (19-21) - 3♣ (Puppet Stayman)3♦ - 3♥ (4 spades)3NT - 4NTpass Is 4NT Cuantitative for you? Yes/No and why ? More disasters coming soon :-) Luis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flytoox Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 yes, 4N is quantitative, but I dont understand why north bid only 4N. He has good 14hcp and pd opened 2N. I would bid 6N. I admit i would miss 7D but at least I can bid 6N. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 Yes, 4NT is quantitative imo. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joker_gib Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 Quantitative for me too but like all quantitative bids, they can be passed ! This is of course not acceptable with 14 HCP in front of 19 min !! So if you want to look for 7, bid 5NT, partner will bid 6NT with min and bid "Baron like" with positive. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 Its Quantitative, yes. There's a couple of Kleinman treatments that would help. The auction: 2N - 4♠ (Kantar / Kleinman Slam Force - to make a quantitative raise but investigate a 4-4 fit) is quantitative in essence, but Opener obviously can't pass. Why couldn't 4♠ in the subject auction be similarly quantitative as well? Luis, check out October (I think, it might have been Sept. , '04 BW (I know you subscribe :) ). Kleinman had an article called "Sampling" and he discussed a treatment called Yellow Rose. Seems it would fit this hand real well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ochinko Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 Quantitative means that if the opener is at his maximum HCP in the line should amount to 33. If South believes 4NT is quantitative, Pass is right with the minimum. The bidding sugests there was a misunderstanding. Can't apportion the blame without knowing their agreement. If there is no agreement, North should jump to 6NT to avoid the possible misunderstanding. If I was South, I'd probably pass 4NT too. And once again, as flytoox found, there's likely to exist 7D here. An expert pair should have the tools to find it. I'm no expert, but I still search... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 4NT is surely quantitative, as everyone has pointed out already. South with 19 and bland distribution has no choice but to pass. 100% of blame on north. Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdulmage Posted March 7, 2005 Report Share Posted March 7, 2005 I guess if you play 19-21, then it is quantitative. If you played it 20-21, I would say no, because the 1 point difference can't possible be enough to determine slam vs. pass. North could have bid 4♣ gerber. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted March 8, 2005 Report Share Posted March 8, 2005 4NT is surely quantitative, as everyone has pointed out already. South with 19 and bland distribution has no choice but to pass. 100% of blame on north. Ben completely agree, no matter South's 2N was 19-20 or 20-21(22). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trumpace Posted March 8, 2005 Report Share Posted March 8, 2005 Sorry for the off topic post, but a correct spelling of analyze is definitely not analize. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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