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Reevaluate this


  

20 members have voted

  1. 1. Bid?

    • 3D
      5
    • 3H
      4
    • 3S
      0
    • 3NT
      11
    • 4C
      0


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I don't get your thread title. You outline a system and your rebid under that system is clear as Zel says. So what is there to re-value?

 

I kinda agree with Fluffy - but you need to discuss changing the system rather than do it on the fly.

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I don't know what you're complaining about. Unless I'm not thinking straight this morning I've been in worse slams than 6 and 3NT is not cast iron on a low spade lead (which is hardly going to be unlikely).

 

Edit... Um, so you're thinking 4C is the bid with your hand. I thought, per your system this was a 3D call. Which I admit puts off the choice somewhat, but at least you're going to commit to slam, if you do, with your eyes more open.

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I think partner should make another move on over a 3nt call. 16 hcp, guaranteed fit in a minor, stiff spade A, and 6 controls, nearly everything working. Of course, might stay out of slam anyways with 1 KC + Q missing. 5 making 6, unlucky. I guess if you play 4 as key card for clubs you might get a 4nt response and play it there (then again a spade lead and unlucky layout might well hold NT to only 9 tricks).
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I don't think that 3NT is correct, then surely if partner bids 4C then 4D is the least I can do. 5C doesn't help him/her at all.

 

FWIW if I had the 1435 hand and partner bid 3nt I'd pass.

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Assuming 15-17 HCP for 1NT, I bid 3NT. Any 4333 shape (even with 4-card support) is bad, only 4 controls is bad (the average expected controls for 15 HCP is 5.01, and obviously higher for 16 and 17 HCP), you are quacky with only a J, AND we have every side suit cleanly stopped. Considering there are many 12 HCP distributional hands where I would make a slam try over 1NT openeing, this is a clear min in context.

 

However, partner should make another slam try WITH 16 WORKING HCP AND 6 CONTROLS!

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A

K942

KQ8

A10875

 

Not sure what is best. 4 will get you to a slam, but is that the percentage bid long term? Wouldn't 3NT be better, or 3x?

Chase said that with this hand anything you do now should work. I disagree, if you bid 3NT you might end up in 6NT, and passing 3NT wouldn't be out of the picture if it wasn't for the nice KQx that guarantee a good minor fit as partner must have 5 diamonds or 3 clubs (maybe both).

 

I think bidding 3 is still pretty clear, and any form of raise will put declarer into slam directly.

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Thx all. Hands:

Q 10 3 A Q J A J 5 J 9 4 3

A K 9 4 2 K Q 8 A 10 8 7 5

1NT 2

2 3

??

And now? 3x bids would show up-the-line stopper (but could be advance cue), 3NT misfit or bad hand in context, and 4 ye olde "great hand in context."

IMO 3 = 10. 3 = 9. 3N = 8. 4 = 7. 3 = 5. Fluffy persuades us that 3 is best, in an attempt to stay out of 3N when responder has a pointy singleton. 4 is an overbid with a flat minimum, in spite of 4-card trump support and 2 aces. As chasteb says, whatever you bid, partner has an enormous hand and is worth at least one more effort.
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I'm surprised no-one's asked what 3 meant. Is it a decent suit, or just 4-5? Or other?

 

It's standard: just a 4-5 and a game force. A priori there are no slam overtones from it (that comes later on, if relevant).

 

Thx all again. I found this discussion very nice.

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