spkcp111 Posted January 24, 2015 Report Share Posted January 24, 2015 Clearly the BOT--even more so in IMPS. South limited his point values to a balanced 20-21. He has 10 hcps--an IFFY slam at best. You should really have 33 or more. I play the robots a lot and I'm continually amazed at how the bidding falls apart in slam bidding. Most often--they leap past it right to 6--no ace asking, no RKC, nothing... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
victorhugo Posted January 24, 2015 Report Share Posted January 24, 2015 I am sorry to be in disagreement with such an esteemed panel, but for my money, when my partner, who I know cues Aces first bids 4♥ with 5-4 in the majors, I sure am NOT playing him for a stiff ♣ when I have 5 ♦ and they didn't preempts in ♣. 100% South. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
redbird97 Posted January 25, 2015 Report Share Posted January 25, 2015 South for the 5D bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rmnka447 Posted January 26, 2015 Report Share Posted January 26, 2015 South's 5 ♦ bid just isn't right. One thing I harp about when a player is considering slam is for each player to ask "What do I need to know to insure slam has a reasonable play?". Here, South's answer to that question is simple -- "I need to know at a minimum that we don't have two ♣ losers." By bidding 5 ♦, South makes it impossible for North to show a 2nd round ♣ control below slam. Indeed, a case could be made that 5 ♦ shows a ♣ control along with the ♦ A. I think that's what the robot took the bid as meaning. If 4 NT wouldn't be taken as a form of Blackwood, then that would be the best bid. Years back we called it DI (Declarative Interogatory) 4 NT. It shows interest in slam and asks if partner has anything else to show. In this case, it denies the ♣ A. With that card, South could simply continue cueing by bidding 5 ♣. If 4 NT would be a form of a Blackwood, then South is constrained to bidding some number of ♠s. In any case, South can't use Blackwood with the actual hand because it doesn't get the right info from North. 4 ♠ can't completely be a signoff. From what North can see, even if South held ♥ KQJ and ♦ AKQJ, a black suit A must be held to get to the normal 20-21 for the 2 NT bid. If South bids 5 ♠ would North necessarily recognize that it asks about a ♣ control? Even North if does, could North's hand be something like ♠ J109xx ♥ AQxx ♦ x ♣ QJx where 5 ♠ isn't completely assured. 4 ♠ also might let North use Blackwood when its right to do so. One little wrinkle might be considered once ♠s are set by the 3 ♠ call after Smolen. 3 NT shouldn't be a logical contract anymore. So 3 NT could be used to begin cueing and deny a ♣ 1st round control. Continuing with 4 ♦ (1st in ♦, no 1st in ♣), 4 ♥ (1st in ♥), the ♣ control issue comes more clearly into view while saving some bidding space. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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