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Assign the subjunctive blame - who was the (bigger) wuss?


  

52 members have voted

  1. 1. Blame away (conditional on 2/1)

    • S should have rebid 3S
    • N should have rebid 2N
    • Just Bad luck to have (cough) been playing an awkward system
    • Other (please specify)
    • N should have rebid 3S


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Both sides underbid. Opener easily has a 3 rebid, Aces and kings are undervalued by point count, having them combined in the same suit has some value and having AKXXXX in the likely trump suit is a big plus, it could play for no losers even opposite as little as QX or XXX. Responder's cards again include 2 aces and the queen of partner's suit, all of which look to be working, so a raise to 3 is again better. There are all sorts of 2 rebids by opener which would have a play for game opposite this hand. There are plenty of 11-12 point hands which would automatically take another bid which won't play nearly as well as this one and you have a known fit in a major.
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IMO

After 1 - 1N - ??: 2 = 10, 3 = 9, 2N = 8, 2 (Gazzilli) = 11 :)

After 1 - 1N - 2 - ??: 3 = 10, 2N = 9, Pass = 7. IMO a 3 rebid is a reasonable shot if partner would pass 1 on poor hands. IMO, Jinksy's 2N might work better when opener is weaker.

A K x x x x Q x x J x Q x when 3 is in jeopardy.

A K x x x x A J x J x J x when 3N is safer than 4.

 

After 1 - 1N - 2 - 3 - ?? Should South consider 3N as well as 4?

 

I disagree slightly with the scoring of the bids. If this is a hand good enough to bid Gazzilli on (and I don't have a problem with that), then 2 can not be a better rebid than 3. Any hand strong enough to bid Gazzilli is too good for 2;.

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KNR has it as a 17 count, but DK points has it at 15? The AK of spades is great, but his other HCP are in short suits. Hand doesn't feel like it is worth significantly more or less than the 15 HCP evaluation imho. I play Gaz, so 1S-1NT-3S is 15-16, and I'd try that here, but playing standard methods this does not feel like a tasty 16+ that I need to bid 3S here.

 

I mean, if this is 3S, what does partner need to raise a 2S to 3S after a NF 1NT being corrected to 2S?

 

When you reference KnR you need to keep hands in context. KnR loves long suits, and loves J's and T's in those suits as well. It discounts short honors and slightly discounts unsupported honors.

 

When we already hold a six bagger and considering our rebid, you need to keep this in mind, since we are getting some 'bonus points' already for the 6th spade, so it would be incorrect to just automatically take all KnR=16-18 and stuff them into a 3 rebid.

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2 is fine with the hand that you held. Your on the top edge of that bid, but that's allowable.

 

If 1 NT was forcing, then North definitely owes you a raise to 3 . The 2 rebid shows 6 s and there is an 8 card fit. Responder has 3 sure cover cards although just 10 points.

 

If, as his card says, he's playing some version of SAYC, then I think he still owes you a raise to 3 for the same reasons as over a forcing NT.

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What's the formula for KnR? Googling it, all I find is links to software that applies it for me.

 

Just dl the software. Very small storage and clean.

When you put a hand it will give you KnR,Zar and Kleinman values of the hand. It explains in it how it calculates KnR, Zar.and Kleinman (Click on help by H key, and then keep hitting on M key for "more")

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  • 2 weeks later...

1sp- 1nt - 2cl (shows diamonds), you cannot show clubs on the 2 level. 3 cl would be forcing with clubs, 1sp-1nt-2 nt shows invitational with clubs. If you prefer, you could switch the two last ones.. Worst hand would be 15-16 and 5-2-2-4 (you might open 1nt)

It seems to me that if you want to restrict 2 like this (most playing transfer rebids do not) then you would be better off playing 2 as a weak hand with clubs and including the one-suited hands with weak spades within the (otherwise underused) 2 rebid.

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