benlessard Posted January 4, 2015 Report Share Posted January 4, 2015 Im wondering about the results for 1C-1S-1NT vs 1D-1S-2C or 1C-1S-2C. It seem it would be easy to check this on a database. I dont systematically rebid 1NT with a stiff I do it only when my minors are poor. Its not because I know whats best its simply because i didnt feel I had a lot of troubles after 1D-1S-2C. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted January 4, 2015 Report Share Posted January 4, 2015 I don't have the functionality to do it on my database, but maybe soon. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted January 5, 2015 Report Share Posted January 5, 2015 No database here, but I've been opening 1NT on 4441s with strong singleton (AKQ) on a regular basis for a long time. I can't remember any disaster. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted January 5, 2015 Report Share Posted January 5, 2015 I will relate to you my experience with this. For many years, if I held a 5 card major suit as responder, and the auction began 1m - 1M - 1NT, I would rebid my major suit. This usually resulted in playing 2 of a major in a 5-2 or 5-3 fit, and was often better than 1NT. Partner never had a singleton in my major suit, and would have 3 card support often enough that it would be a mistake to pass 1NT. And many times the 5-2 fits played better than 1NT. However, there is more of a tendency today to raise responder's major suit response on 3 card support and there is more of a tendency today to rebid 1NT with a singleton in responder's major. These factors have led to me changing my style so that now I pass the 1NT rebid almost all of the time when I hold a 5 card major (exception - a hand with something like KQJTx of the major with nothing outside). I don't know if I should be alerting this. So far, I consider it to be just bridge. Perhaps others have an opinion on this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted January 5, 2015 Report Share Posted January 5, 2015 For many years, if I held a 5 card major suit as responder, and the auction began 1m - 1M - 1NT, I would rebid my major suit. This usually resulted in playing 2 of a major in a 5-2 or 5-3 fit, and was often better than 1NT. Partner never had a singleton in my major suit, and would have 3 card support often enough that it would be a mistake to pass 1NT. And many times the 5-2 fits played better than 1NT..............Perhaps others have an opinion on this.This has continued to be our position because we still don't rebid 1NT with a singleton, and won't raise the Major with 3 when balanced. Our opinion of the results is positive. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted January 5, 2015 Author Report Share Posted January 5, 2015 These factors have led to me changing my style so that now I pass the 1NT rebid almost all of the time when I hold a 5 card major Good point, I feel rebidding 2M on 5 is good at MP but im not sure its working in imps. It mean that we must also check 1m-1M-1Nt-2M vs 1m-1M-1NT. I dont really know if more and more offshapes hands (like 2236 or 2254) favor 1NT or 2M. The 5-2 become way more frequent than a 5-3 but its a 5-2 with ruffing potential. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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