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Yet another UI - amusingly low standard club game


lmilne

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I think that this is a dubious assertion. L1612b has the specification for LA: "..among the class of players in question and using the methods of the partnership,.."

 

which to me specifies that it does not rely upon what THE player 'thought' but what OTHER players would consider based upon the Method.

The objective of asking why he bid 1NT is to establish whether he belongs to the class of players who think that this hand is worth a non-forcing non-invitational 1NT bid, or the class of players who think that 1NT is forcing and unlimited, or the class of players who think that 1NT shows 6-9 HCP (with South having miscounted his points).

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That may be true by itself, but your argument doesn't hold when you add the condition that you have just told your partner that you cannot hold an invite anymore. If South replaced his 3NT bid by 2NT, this would -in principle- be merely to play with a 9-10 count, instead of the 6-8 he could have held and with which he would pass. (I write "in principle" since in this case North, with his borderline non-invitation, will raise to 3NT anyway.)

 

South cannot show his 12 HCP hand with an invitational bid anymore, so he will need to bite the bullet and simply bid game. That is at least what any half decent player -who through a brain fart had lost an ace earlier in the auction- would do. (But note that "any half decent player" does not apply here.)

 

Rik

Interesting. I would think the hypothetical half "decent" player would consider himself restricted from bidding 2NT on the second round after partner tanked on his 1NT response, if he truly held 9 or 10 pts... and restricted from bidding 3NT after finding a lost King since he "knows" partner would accept and bid 3NT after an invite.

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Interesting. I would think the hypothetical half "decent" player would consider himself restricted from bidding 2NT on the second round after partner tanked on his 1NT response, if he truly held 9 or 10 pts... and restricted from bidding 3NT after finding a lost King since he "knows" partner would accept and bid 3NT after an invite.

Why would he be restricted? If South indeed suddenly finds a king, then 2NT or pass are simply not LAs, because they don't show game values and they aren't even invitational.The only way to bid the game going values (or if you evaluate it as a very good invitation: the only way to come close to showing a very good invitation) is to bid game.

 

Rik

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Having read this thread, I am no wiser as to why people think pass is an LA for South.
StevenG speaks for most players and many directors. Others do think pass might be an LA for this South but are happy to take South's word that he mis-sorted his hand, or thought his 1N was forcing, or whatever. Most of the rest prefer a weighted ruling. Thus, If North's hesitation does wake South up and he decides to bid 3N, he is usually better off than if he made a masochistic legal pass. Weighted rulings usually ensure a profit even when South fesses up and is unfortunate enough to encounter a director who would rule against him.

 

The other side are correspondingly worse off but they might learn something from their opponents' good fortune. They might gradually appreciate the message inherent in the way such laws are commonly interpreted: if you can't beat 'em, join 'em! :)

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I am fairly confident, assuming no cards were hidden, that North-South have no agreement on what 1N means, and, despite playing "standard american", South thinks that 1N is 8-30, non-forcing, and, at the moment he or she bid 1N, was not aware that the bid of 2N even existed.

 

With players of this caliber, it is useless to try to infer anything about what they thought based on what they bid. The implication that South thought his or her hand was not worth an invite based on the 1N bid is grossly wrong.

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