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Opening bid


  

36 members have voted

  1. 1. What would you bid?

    • 1D
      22
    • 3D
      0
    • 4D
      0
    • 5D
      9
    • 3NT
      1
    • 2C
      4
    • Other
      0


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At least one of you was thinking of opening 2 what actually happened. Not 1 and not 5. I was completely lost in this bidding. As you can see slam did not make - just the wrong values. I could not believe that my hand was not enough to make slam opposite a 2 opener. BTW what is 4 in this bidding sequence?

 

[hv=sn=South&s=SAJ7HJ852DQJCT973&wn=West&w=S53HADAKT987653C5&nn=North&n=SK862HT43D2CQJ864&en=East&e=SQT94HKQ976D4CAK2&d=s&v=o&b=11&a=P2CP3C(13-15)P4DP4HP5DP6NPPP&p=S7S3SKS9S2STSJS5SAD3S6S4CTC5C4CAD4DJDAD2DKH4C2DQHAH3H6H2DTHTH7&c=10]399|300[/hv]

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A 2opening should be based on a few quick tricks outside an obvious trump suit. This hand is more pre-emptive in nature - one long suit - but really isn't pre-emptive as it is 1) far far too strong 2) one opponent has already passed.

 

The rule of 2 and 3 (used for pre-empts) says that you should have about 8 tricks and little defence to open 5. If the suit had been KQJ10xxxxx with nothing outside, 5 is a perfect opening bid. This hand has 10 tricks, so to pre-empt looks completely wrong.

 

Therefore open 1 and see where it leads. If the ops outbid you so be it. As for rebidding, 5 looks favourite, but technically it is a strong hand with solid trumps and not easy to judge.

 

When partner incorrectly opens 2 and then jumps in a suit it says the suit is solid, and sets the suit as trumps. So, on the actual auction his 4 is technically correct even though his 2 opening isn't.

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At least one of you was thinking of opening 2 what actually happened. Not 1 and not 5. I was completely lost in this bidding. As you can see slam did not make - just the wrong values. I could not believe that my hand was not enough to make slam opposite a 2 opener. BTW what is 4 in this bidding sequence?

 

[hv=sn=South&s=SAJ7HJ852DQJCT973&wn=West&w=S53HADAKT987653C5&nn=North&n=SK862HT43D2CQJ864&en=East&e=SQT94HKQ976D4CAK2&d=s&v=o&b=11&a=P2CP3C(13-15)P4DP4HP5DP6NPPP&p=S7S3SKS9S2STSJS5SAD3S6S4CTC5C4CAD4DJDAD2DKH4C2DQHAH3H6H2DTHTH7&c=10]399|300[/hv]

 

4 sets the trump suit. That 6NT nonsense is going to earn a dirty look, or worse, from partner for taking control of the hand. By sheer fortune, 6 makes and East has really messed up :)

 

I agree with the 2 but I'd bid Blackwood over 4. Then East passes 5. Or I can shoot for a top with a slam even off one ace.

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Well here's the thing: if I hold a 14 count and my partner opens 2C and slam has no play, then partner DID NOT HAVE A 2C OPENING. So the 2C openers, put that in your pipe and smoke it!

1D is fine, 5D is better imo and 2C is absurd.

 

[hv=pc=n&s=s852hqjt6dkqj3caj&n=sakqjt93h98dackqt]133|200[/hv]

 

Unlucky. I think a 2 by this N is fine (has just 3 losers, and has 7 spade + 1 diamond + 1 club for 9 sure tricks in its own hand) and the 14 point hand opposite has no slam possible thanks to the 2 quick heart tricks.

 

I agree the W hand in the original post is likely best described by a call other than 2.

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1) I don't think this 14 count is really equivalent to the one above. More points in queens and jacks and less in A and K for example.

 

2) When my p bid 5 her hand seemed to miss controls in spade and club possibly having A. I guessed something went wrong in bidding but did not know what. I did not imagine she has something like QJ AJ AKQJxxxx Q or weaker in controls for a 2 opening in diamond.

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In order of preference

 

5

It is likely to make and hoping that partner will bid a slam holding a couple of aces and keep quiet otherwise. Also it pre-empts opps possible major suit slam or sacrifice.

 

3NT is very risky - attractive at pairs but less so at other forms of scoring as if it makes then so probably will 5. A black suit lead may see you lose the first 5 tricks and a heart lead knocking out your entry may mean you cannot run your diamonds.

 

1 is correct but a little tame for the hand.

With this sort of distribution its quite likely that opps have something in one of the majors. Opening at the one level may allow them to get in. I especially don't like this playing 5 card majors either - how many times do you rebid the suit to convince partner you have nine?!

 

2 mis-describes the essentially pre-emptive nature of the hand although it just about qualifies as a strong hand.

OK if you can trust partner to respect your sign off in 5 and not get over excited. (No I don't like that 6NT bid).

Also it's still low enough for OPPs to come in with a good major suit.

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2 mis-describes the essentially pre-emptive nature of the hand although it just about qualifies as a strong hand.

OK if you can trust partner to respect your sign off in 5 and not get over excited. (No I don't like that 6NT bid).

Also it's still low enough for OPPs to come in with a good major suit.

 

If you are going to open this 2C, you need to have a very clear agreement about what your 3D, 4D and 5D rebids show vs a direct 5D. I think if you are going to open 2C, you cannot bid 4D as hands richer in HCP but lesser in shape (say, KQ x AKQJxxx AQJ might want to do that). I certainly wouldn't bid like this in a pick up partnership, but given you are non vul, is there anything wrong with playing that a direct 5D is 9 playing tricks and 2C->5D is 10 playing tricks? (or if that is too scary, try 10 and 11). Then partner has a much better idea of if to punt 6D with 2 or 3 aces.

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I find it hard to stomach that several posters believe that 2 is the correct opening on this hand. Still, even after opening 2, slam should be avoided. I do have an agreement with my regular partner that a 2 opening followed by an immediate game bid shows a powerful trick taking hand with less than the traditional values for a 2 opening. But the line has to be drawn somewhere, and this is WAY below that line.

 

1 followed by 5 is a reasonable description of this hand. It shows a 5 opening bid that has values, not just long diamonds.

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At least one of you was thinking of opening 2 what actually happened. Not 1 and not 5. I was completely lost in this bidding. As you can see slam did not make - just the wrong values. I could not believe that my hand was not enough to make slam opposite a 2 opener. BTW what is 4 in this bidding sequence?

 

[hv=sn=South&s=SAJ7HJ852DQJCT973&wn=West&w=S53HADAKT987653C5&nn=North&n=SK862HT43D2CQJ864&en=East&e=SQT94HKQ976D4CAK2&d=s&v=o&b=11&a=P2CP3C(13-15)P4DP4HP5DP6NPPP&p=S7S3SKS9S2STSJS5SAD3S6S4CTC5C4CAD4DJDAD2DKH4C2DQHAH3H6H2DTHTH7&c=10]399|300[/hv]

 

I play your hand as an absolute slam force opposite a 2 opener and my only question would be whether we should be bidding a grand. 2 completely misdescribes that hand. I would open 1, likely rebidding 5, but opening 5 is also much better than 2

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It'd a correct bidding with chicane in heart and Qxx in spade but with two Aces and (let's say) more a King (1/2 trick) is not good for a pre-empt and also 2 is wrong because we have more losers (x 5) than points.
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