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Correcting 1NT to 2M


awm

  

19 members have voted

  1. 1. When would you correct a 1NT rebid to 2M on five?

    • Never
    • Only on an unbalanced hand
    • Only into a really strong suit
    • Only into a lousy suit
      0
    • Only with really weak overall values
    • More likely to do this at MPs
    • More likely to do this at IMPs
    • Some other criterion
    • Always


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it is probably easier for me to describe the hands when I don't pull to 2M, since pulling is my default preference.

 

I will not pull when I hold enough hcp to expect that we have slightly more than half the deck, and I have a balanced hand and I have scattered soft values. So after 1 1 I would pass with something like Qxx Q10xxx Kx QJx or Jxx J9xxx KQx Qx

 

Note that my preference is for the 1N to not deny 4 spades. However some of my partners don't like this, so with them I would tend to pull more frequently if I held a doubleton spade.

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There's definitely been a movement in the UK towards -

 

Never raising on a balanced hand with three cards

Nearly always rebidding your suit with five cards

 

The best player I've spoken to about this says he rebids five-card suits 95% of the time. Playing this style, I'm a big fan of rebidding 1S over 1H on 4-2 majors, but rebidding 1NT on 4-3 majors.

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I would correct pretty much with any really weak hand and a good reason

to fear 1n (short suit outside openers minor). Vulnerable would be a

strong factor here.

 

If balanced I would correct if the suit is headed by the A KT9 if I had nothing

that looked like an entry no matter the overall power. Vulnerable wpuld be a

strong factor here.

 

If my suit was good 3 of top 5 honors (or AK) no matter if I had an entry or not

and would not care about power. Vulnerability is irrelevant here.

 

This means opener cannot assume anything about my hand or suit quality when I correct

and this is indeed a flaw but there are too many ways to show invitational hands so

this method of showing weak hands is designed to try and keep things safe. The fact that

I do not immediately convert 1n to 2M does not forbid me from doing so if 1n were x :)

or competing if the opps bid over 1n.

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I pull like 99% of the time.

 

1. If 1NT guarantees a balanced hand (except #3): pull.

2. If 1NT does not guarantee a balanced hand: then I'm playing in BBO vs a random, so I pull to hog the hand.. lol

3. If 1NT guarantees a balanced hand & we have a combined 21-23/22-24 & suit is weak & pard can play'em: leave it

 

Probability of 3 is ~1% :)

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I usually play an anti-field system (weak NT in the ACBL), so all hands that fit this description have gone 1NT-transfer-accept at the other tables. Therefore, pull unless it's obvious to me that 1NT will play at least as well as 2M, or that the "wrong-siding" we've done is going to be more of an issue than playing the wrong contract the "right" way up.

 

Playing strong NT, effectively, if my partner can't have a stiff in my suit, I pull. I might be convinced to sit a lot more if partner will raise on 3 a significant fraction of the time such that if we do have an 8-card fit, I can expect no ruffs in the short hand.

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I used to pull most of the time.

-Defending 1 NT is heavy duty job-5-3 M fit can make magics also in 1 NT

-1 level lower.

-When (more often over 2M) they balance, I am better placed deciding when to sell out, double or compete

-Easier to balance for them over especially 2 compared to 1 NT (I am sure we all know and see hands where 1 NT is cold for one side and 2 for other side)

-I do rebid 1 NT with stiff in responder's suit

 

When do I pull? Weak hand with very little to none entries to my hand and good suit. Or with hands which I actually did not have a legit 1M response strength wise. Jxx KQTxx xx xxx ---I pull

KJx JTxxx xx Jxx --I pass

JT9xx x JTxx xxx -- I pull (yes I respond 1 with this)

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Play it differently with different bidding systems.

 

When playing weak NTs, I'll normally pull to 2 M over an opening 1 NT (equivalent 1 m followed by 1 NT rebid by most SA pairs). Also over 1 m followed by a 1 NT rebid (a 15-17 NT hand), I'll pull to 2 M because most strong NT bidders are being transferred into the M anyhow.

 

When playing strong NTs, I'll normally rebid 2 M over a 1 NT rebid unless there's reason to believe 1 NT might play better (bad suit, some intermediates, scattered values).

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I think the poll makes little sense, since it depends how often you will raise on three cards and whether you will rebid 1NT with a singleton.

 

For what it is worth I will raise on three with a balanced hand and a low doubleton in an unbid suit.

I will frequently rebid 1NT with a singleton spade, but not with a singleton heart.

 

Accordingly I will only takeout into a five card spade suit if I can stomach to play in a 5-1 spade fit and the suit may not establish in notrumps.

Obviously you take out into KQJTx or AQJTx and often into QJT9x or KQJxx

I am more likely to take out into hearts than spades.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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I think what I do is something like:

Always when not 5332.

Always when weak.

Always when I have no possible side-entry.

Always with a suit of QJ10xx or better.

 

But as others have said it depends on how often partner will have three-card support, and how often he'll have a singleton.

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