mike777 Posted November 5, 2014 Report Share Posted November 5, 2014 I guess 2N-then-3D is GF then? With the idea being that if opener happens to have extras, supporting him at the 4-level is not an issue? (if your methods allow you to stop in 4N you should be safe with extras opposite extras.) Or am I missing the basic idea?This actually looks interesting (at least I'm intrigued by my own interpretation of your comment...), can you elaborate more? no I would bid a direct 3d over 2h as weakish, granted I might miss a 4-3 heart game here.3c(4sf) over 2h would be a gf/ but still granted a difficult auction but rare.2nt would still be art/wk but deny 3+ diamonds. in this case deny majors, deny d, so long clubs very oftenbut wk. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
antonylee Posted November 5, 2014 Author Report Share Posted November 5, 2014 From the explanation, I guess opener is supposed to rebid 3C most of the time over 2N? What does responder's delayed 3D mean then? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted November 5, 2014 Report Share Posted November 5, 2014 One solution is to use the "good" 2NT. 2NT = art and GF. Opener just patterns out over this.3♣/♦ = weak3♥♠ max with diamond fit, values in bid suit and weak clubs The advantage of playing 3♣ direct as weak is when opener has a fit for clubs. This is more important after 1♥-1NT-2♠ where there are two unbid minors. There is one more spare bid: 2♠ = in between hand - you can just play that opener bids naturally after this - 2NT and 3♦ NF, everthing else patterning out and forcing. You can also use the JLall puppet principle here if you want. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
antonylee Posted November 5, 2014 Author Report Share Posted November 5, 2014 Also very interesting. The loss of a bid to show the good club hand (which is the only cost, right?) is partially offset if you play 1x-3C as invitational, which I do. (This may mean that you can't use the same approach when responding to T/O X though?)You can also use the JLall puppet principle here if you want.I know what JLall puppet is but don't see how it applies there. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted November 5, 2014 Report Share Posted November 5, 2014 Also very interesting. The loss of a bid to show the good club hand (which is the only cost, right?) is partially offset if you play 1x-3C as invitational, which I do. (This may mean that you can't use the same approach when responding to T/O X though?) I know what JLall puppet is but don't see how it applies there. Yes, I play 3♣ direct as invitational. With a club hand still worth a force after a reverse, responder bids a forcing 2NT with the decent club hand. Whether one wants to use the "good" 2NT after 1M-X-2M is a separate topic. The answer is probably yes, but I don't do so at present. After 1♦-1NT-2♥-2♠(medium), opener can bid 3♣ as a puppet to 3♦, and use 3♦ as a forcing 46, and you get a few extra sequences after the 3♣ puppet. So one can even stop in 3♥ with a moderate 56 red hand opposite trash. Are you sure you know the JLall puppet? :blink: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
antonylee Posted November 5, 2014 Author Report Share Posted November 5, 2014 Clearly I didn't, I was confused and just thought it was some general principle that applied also to the 1NT-3C puppet (for which JLall also advertised a well-known structure). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted November 6, 2014 Report Share Posted November 6, 2014 Clearly I didn't, I was confused and just thought it was some general principle that applied also to the 1NT-3C puppet (for which JLall also advertised a well-known structure). OK. Go to this link (this applies to everyone). http://justinlall.com/2011/08/30/a-good-convention/ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 6, 2014 Report Share Posted November 6, 2014 From the explanation, I guess opener is supposed to rebid 3C most of the time over 2N? What does responder's delayed 3D mean then? 1d=1nt2h=2nt(art/wk) In this style most of the time over 2nt (art/wk) opener will simply rebid 3d unless they have extras One system hole is the weak hand with long clubs by responder3c over 2h would be long clubs and roughly 8-11 on this auction. 3c over 2nt would be natural and forcing 0=4=5=4 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
antonylee Posted November 6, 2014 Author Report Share Posted November 6, 2014 OK. Go to this link (this applies to everyone). http://justinlall.com/2011/08/30/a-good-convention/I actually knew (and have played) this convention, not from JLall but from Billy Miller who wrote about it in his Bridge Bulletin column some time ago. Never though about using it over reverses (I guess Lebensohl is just... automatic in my mind), but I see how it can make sense there too. 1d=1nt2h=2nt(art/wk) In this style most of the time over 2nt (art/wk) opener will simply rebid 3d unless they have extras One system hole is the weak hand with long clubs by responder3c over 2h would be long clubs and roughly 8-11 on this auction. 3c over 2nt would be natural and forcing 0=4=5=4OK, thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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