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Partner opens 1 Opponent 2 (Michaels) I have:

AKQJ

QJ95

AK62

J

 

As this was on my phone I see my partner has

void

void

QJ10943

AQ108742

 

What is a forcing bid here? Do I pass and double? 4NT knowing we probably have a massive diamond fit as I know where 9 of each of the majors are?

 

Any opinions would be great.

 

Before I knew my partners hand, E/W vulnerable I passed W bid 2S passed around to me where I doubled and we set them 4 for a score of 1100 but, 7 or 6 is makeable (king of clubs is singleton offside) Play Went Q which I did not overtake, Ace , 2 (I duck around to west) 8 trumped by east, east then leads A-K and I take the last tricks, j drawing trump and A-K diamonds.

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Thanks for answering my question with my question. I am asking what is the forcing bid here?!

 

After 2C! Michaels ( showing both majors ) you have 2 cuebids available : 2H! or 2S! .

 

Typically, 2H! , the lower cuebid, would show , and 2S! would show .

 

Eventho I would rather have at least a 5 card suit, I'd cue 2S! anyway with such a strong hand .

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Typically, 2H! , the lower cuebid, would show , and 2S! would show .

There are 2 ways of playing this and it requires discussion. One way is to link higher to higher and lower to lower as suggested by Don (=, =); the other is for the higher cue to be the raise and the lower cue to be the unbid suit (=, =). I have played it both ways round with different partners. In addition, it is not uncommon for a 2M bid to be used to show a stopper in that suit, or more rarely to ask for a stopper. Without Unusual versus Unusual agreed this (showing values in the suit bid) is probably the default agreement.

 

In any case, just about everyone plays double to show general values so that is easily the safest way to start without any agreements. Sitting with 0067 was certainly brave - it could have gone worse than +1100.

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