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21 members have voted

  1. 1. see above

    • yes
      4
    • no
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No I don't think so. Advancer is limited and it is conceivable that we need to stop in 4 when advancer doesn't have a diamond stopper.

 

I can see a case for playing it as forcing, though. Advancer could use the 4 bid to look for a 4-3 fit in a major while using the 4 bid to show a hand suitable for a club slam. Maybe advancer could bid a 3-card major instead of 4, but I am not sure if 3 denies a 4-card major. Of course advancer won't usually have a 4-card major.

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If 2N is Lebensohl, then 3 shows values (9+). Even so, 4 shows a minimum and no stop. The question is whether 3 is GF or forcing to a fit. If the latter then 4 is not forcing. Doubler must bid assuming 9-10 HCP opposite.
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The question is whether 3 is GF or forcing to a fit. If the latter then 4 is not forcing.

It might just be a matter of terminology but in my system document I use the term GF to mean "forcing to 3NT" with UGF meaning unconditionally forcing to game. The difference is precisely what Andy wrote - the rule about whether it is possible to stop in 4m after trying for 3NT. So 3 being GF alone is not enough to say for certain whether 4 is forcing - the general rule takes precedence here.

 

To me, if there is no other agreement in place (pick up partnership) then it should be non-forcing, since 4 is available to force with litle cost. But perhaps that is simply a reflection of my personal logic rather than how the rest of the world views things.

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Partner doubles and then cues their suit. How can he pass after that? Please don't do that to me!

He would have preferred me bidding NT of a major suit, but I could not do that, sorry.

I don't like the concept that GF bidding may end up in 4 or 4 when 3NT was not biddable.

It makes for awkward slam bidding.

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I don't like the concept that GF bidding may end up in 4 or 4 when 3NT was not biddable.

It makes for awkward slam bidding.

 

Not if you play a direct raise to Four as forcing (and therefore a slam try). This frees up the cue bid to explore other denominations and still stop in 4m. Even if I cue and remove 3NT to 4m that's nf for me.

 

But I certainly would not call something GF if I play it as nothing of the kind.

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It might just be a matter of terminology but in my system document I use the term GF to mean "forcing to 3NT" with UGF meaning unconditionally forcing to game.

 

Was there something wrong with the established usage of "F3NT" for "forcing to 3NT" and "FG" for "forcing to game"?

 

 

 

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