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Is this bid forcing?


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I am going to assume that 2 was weak, otherwise the question makes no sense.

 

2 should be forcing. With a weak hand, opener would have no reason to bid a new suit unless he was wildly distributional, and I would not devise a system that caters to that hand. On the other hand, if opener has a very strong hand, he wants to search for the best game even opposite a weak hand with a long suit.

 

 

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If 2 is a strong bid, then it should be game forcing and hence all bids below game, including 2, are forcing.

 

If 2 is weak, then I am not sure. 2 seems like it does not exist in this auction. Perhaps partner has a strong 6-5? At the table I would follow the principle: when in doubt, it's forcing.

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Yes. Absent discussion I assume it means whatever a 2S response to a weak two means (except that it's very unlikely to be leading to a 5-3 fit.)
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Different people seem to define the nature of the preemptive 2H bid differently. In our style, with 2H showing 6 hearts and LESS than the values for a 1H response, 2S would be forcing but something designed to torture partner and accomplish nothing. In other words, it wouldn't exist.
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The bidding goes

 

1 club Pass 2 hearts Pass

2 spades....

 

Is the 2 spade bid forcing?

 

(edited to indicate that the 2 heart bid is preemptive...)

 

I play it forcing. Really no different than the RONF rule for opening weak 2 bids I've been using. Obviously, the 2sp bid denies support (singleton or void in ). Responder will either support spades with 3 or more or rebid her suit. A new suit bid by responder, I believe requires partnership agreement.

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Obviously, the 2sp bid denies support (singleton or void in ).

 

 

AKJx AQx x Axxxx opposite

 

Qxx Kxxxxx xxx x

 

 

With this hand as Opener, a natural and forcing 2 seems to make perfect sense. A splinter would have focused Responder on the potential club Queen. A spade bid and then heart slam move establishes the pattern (short diamonds) and focuses the spade suit as the source of need.

 

 

 

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The bidding goes

 

1 club Pass 2 hearts Pass

2 spades....

 

Is the 2 spade bid forcing?

 

(edited to indicate that the 2 heart bid is preemptive...)

 

Well it is clearly shape showing. 2 is a weak hand that is of little or no value unless played in hearts. So, with that in mind, the only reason to find a different strain would be extreme shape by opener. Therefore it is not forcing... if the responder likes better than he can pass. The opener had other options to show a strong 2 suited hand. a jump-reverse would be the 2 suited 19+ hand. 1 ... 2... 3... is a game going call. 2 is likely a 6-5 hand with 0 . For those that think it is a splinter... Slam opposite a weak 2 heart response is not very reasonable.

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Well it is clearly shape showing. 2 is a weak hand that is of little or no value unless played in hearts. So, with that in mind, the only reason to find a different strain would be extreme shape by opener. Therefore it is not forcing... if the responder likes better than he can pass. The opener had other options to show a strong 2 suited hand. a jump-reverse would be the 2 suited 19+ hand. 1 ... 2... 3... is a game going call. 2 is likely a 6-5 hand with 0 . For those that think it is a splinter... Slam opposite a weak 2 heart response is not very reasonable.

Suppose the 5 in your 6-5 hand is hearts. Now is slam reasonable? For example, suppose you pick up:

Kx AJxxx --- AKxxxx

 

You open 1 and partner bids 2 weak. Do you think you can make a slam?

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Suppose the 5 in your 6-5 hand is hearts. Now is slam reasonable? For example, suppose you pick up:

Kx AJxxx --- AKxxxx

 

You open 1 and partner bids 2 weak. Do you think you can make a slam?

 

I bid 6 a long time ago on those cards. 2 is a forcing game try in something other than hearts.

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I bid 6 a long time ago on those cards. 2 is a forcing game try in something other than hearts.

I did not mean to imply that I would bid 2 on these cards - I was merely trying to explain that making a slam opposite a weak jump shift is not necessarily unreasonable.

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Suppose the 5 in your 6-5 hand is hearts. Now is slam reasonable? For example, suppose you pick up:

Kx AJxxx --- AKxxxx

 

You open 1 and partner bids 2 weak. Do you think you can make a slam?

 

You know there is a 0.001% chance that the oppo have both passed, right?

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How can it make any sense for it to be NF?

With a 5026 it would be nice to able to make a nonforcing 2. You will rarely be strong enough to force to game and maybe you should just pass 2 if you have no interest in game. But you could have a hand with which you want to be in 4 or 5 if p has anything useful at all.

 

Probably 2 should be forcing, though, and in any case it obviously is forcing without agreements to the contrary.

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AKJx AQx x Axxxx opposite

 

Qxx Kxxxxx xxx x

 

 

With this hand as Opener, a natural and forcing 2 seems to make perfect sense. A splinter would have focused Responder on the potential club Queen. A spade bid and then heart slam move establishes the pattern (short diamonds) and focuses the spade suit as the source of need.

 

Exactly. A forcing bid is forcing and may conceal support, even very good support.

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