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(1nt)=p=(2c)=?  

12 members have voted

  1. 1. A98...9....QJT92....KQ76



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Taking liberties at favorable but even if the opps have

the rest of the deck I am a big favorite for only down 3

vs their game so going for the best lead director seems

like the way to go. Naturally this time p will have Axx

and happily lead their ace (sigh) and lho will have the

king (such is life).

 

X for a club lead might be ok against a slam but we have

little reason to assume the opps will venture that far so

we go for the best shot at setting their NT contracts.

 

Pass is much more reasonable when vulnerable where a largish

penalty can loom

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Our par on this hand is three or four hearts for the other side with their side making 9 tricks. 2

can lose by 1)partner's A lead, 2) our side playing in for a bad result, or 3)

their underbidding or superior play due to bad split we warned them about. I let them keep the dice.

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2 seems to achieve little, but I prefer that to a club lead. So I bid it.

2D actually achieves more, in theory. It keeps the spade fragment in consideration. For example, if Opener bids 2H, passed around, the 2D start sets up a nice accurate reopening double.

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I pass.

 

If they end up in game in a major, I don't want to direct a lead. I want partner to lead what they think best.

 

If responder is weak with both majors, I can still come in with 2N next round.

 

I seriously doubt they end up in 3N (though I agree in that case it would've been better to have bid 2D).

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