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How strong is your nt?


jfaria

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1.) 2

2.) 2

3.) 1NT

4.) 1

5.) 4 (I think this hand is way too good for anything other than 3, I was probably overly aggressive)

6.) 2 (Hearts are a little better than Spades, but agreed on bidding 1 the first time)

7.) 3

8.) 2 -> 3

9.) 2 (I did think about 1 on 4, since I'm used to it in Precision)

 

EDIT (Added parts in parenthesis)

 

I'm happy with my results!

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2. 1= nat

K654 AKT7 63 AKQ

 

Partner holds: JT2 953 Q92 8632

 

Grue did not pick a good moment to raise to 4 - down four. Partner will obviously pass 3 and rebid 2 over 2 (which is the correct technical auction imo).

In example 8 partner held 98 QJT43 J65 T92 for rebidding 2, quite a difference.

I do not like rebidding 3 card suits in response to a cuebid.

I think the bidding should go

 

(1)-DBL-1-2-2-2-AP

 

3. 1= nat

AKQ8 AJ4 J87 A82

 

Partner holds: 743 K862 Q43 973

 

Stark bid 2, and partner contented himself with a conservative 2, which went one down. 1NT is the winning choice, and with no impletion pard should let that go. Seven tricks are the limit as the cards lie.

I would give serious consideration to 1. In this case 1NT works out slightly better

 

4. 1= Precision

AQ974 KQ98 A3 K2

 

Partner holds: J 765 KQ7654 JT3

 

Palau sniffed out a winning sequence here - he bid 1, and over 1NT from partner, bid, 2. It continued 2NT-3-3NT, which made when diamonds broke.

 

In principle, partner is unlikely to hold three hearts, but the opponents lack of bidding indicates the odds are somewhat higher. Also, the stronger we are, the more likely partner is to introduce a three-bagger.

It would never occur to me to bid 1 over a Precision 1. This shows poor judgement.

What do you want to pass the DBL over a Precision 1???

 

8. 1= Nat

AKJ AK5 83 AK753

 

You cue 2 and pard bids 2, what now?

 

Partner holds: 98 QJT43 J65 T92

 

You have follow through with 3 now - partner will probably bid 3 and you can now give delayed heart support. Demirev simply raised 2 to 3, which we can see from other hands could easily be a 3-3 fit.

Only if you do not plan your bids with weak hands. I almost never rebid 3 card suits, preferring to respond 1 with equal length in the majors, even 3-3. If I were 2-3-5-3 I would respond 2, which often excites partner less than bidding a 3 card major.

Over 2 I can then bid 2, which must be a 3 card suit and denies 5 clubs. I admit bidding 2 could work out poorly.

Rebidding a major in response to a cuebid should confirm at least a 4 card suit. Otherwise the strong hand never knows what to expect.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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In example 8 partner held 98 QJT43 J65 T92 for rebidding 2, quite a difference.

I do not like rebidding 3 card suits in response to a cuebid.

I think the bidding should go

 

(1)-DBL-1-2-2-2-AP

 

 

I would give serious consideration to 1. In this case 1NT works out slightly better

 

 

It would never occur to me to bid 1 over a Precision 1. This shows poor judgement.

What do you want to pass the DBL over a Precision 1???

 

 

Only if you do not plan your bids with weak hands. I almost never rebid 3 card suits, preferring to respond 1 with equal length in the majors, even 3-3. If I were 2-3-5-3 I would respond 2, which often excites partner less than bidding a 3 card major.

Over 2 I can then bid 2, which must be a 3 card suit and denies 5 clubs. I admit bidding 2 could work out poorly.

Rebidding a major in response to a cuebid should confirm at least a 4 card suit. Otherwise the strong hand never knows what to expect.

 

Rainer Herrmann

 

If you think the 1 response on board 4 is bad (it is), you should see their slam bidding.

 

Regarding the correct response with a weak 3343 or similar, the advantage of 1 is that you can pass a flexi Herrmann 1 advance - I'm surprised you did not know this.

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2N seems just right here. It's not like 2N is not constructive, with nothing we would bid 2H. I would say the point ranges are something like 0-4 2H, 5-6 2N, and 7-9 3N. Ofc if you had a good 4 count or a hand with only 3 hearts you might bid 2N. -- PhantomSac

 

 

*** Where does an initial 1NT to the T/O Dbl fit in??

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2N seems just right here. It's not like 2N is not constructive, with nothing we would bid 2H. I would say the point ranges are something like 0-4 2H, 5-6 2N, and 7-9 3N. Ofc if you had a good 4 count or a hand with only 3 hearts you might bid 2N. -- PhantomSac

*** Where does an initial 1NT to the T/O Dbl fit in??

1NT denies a 4-card major while 1 will usually be based on four or more hearts.

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  • 4 weeks later...

Almost everyone plays double-and-bid as "flexible" at the three-, four- and five-levels. We do that because:

- The flexible hands are more common and more important to show.

- Including the flexible hands in double-and-cuebid means overloads the cue-bid and means we never get to describe the flexible hand properly.

- The one-suiters can usually find another bid, albeit an imperfect one.

 

What's different about the two-level?

 

A 4315 17-count is more common than a one-suiter that was too strong to overcall. The 4315 has three interesting features to show - the secondary hearts, the club suit, and the spade suit. Any of these could be the key to whether to bid game or not, and to the decision about which game to bid. The one-suiter has one interesting feature to show.

 

In standard methods, with the 4315 presumably you cue-bid and pass 2 or 2NT, so you never get to show your clubs. Or you cue-bid and partner jumps to show extras, and your clubs are still lost. All this so that you can play in 2 rather than 3 when you have a one-suiter that will often produce nine tricks anyway?

 

As for which hands are included, I think it should be anything that looked like a strong takeout double at the start of the auction, so 4315, 4225, 3325, 4216 and 3316 might all be included, depending on the honour location.

 

I would play double and 2c as teh strong flexible but not quite forcing hand. 17-19 with 5 clubs is routine. Many shapes possible.

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2. 1= nat

K654 AKT7 63 AKQ

 

Partner holds: JT2 953 Q92 8632

 

Grue did not pick a good moment to raise to 4 - down four. Partner will obviously pass 3 and rebid 2 over 2 (which is the correct technical auction imo).

Partner doubles 1 showing interest in the unbid suits and you bid 1, your worst suit, instead of the obvious 2? That's bad bridge imho.

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Partner doubles 1 showing interest in the unbid suits and you bid 1, your worst suit, instead of the obvious 2? That's bad bridge imho.

It depends on your style of doubles. For many modern players the club support after doubling 1 will often fall short of your (or indeed my) expectations.

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