jfnrl Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 [hv=pc=n&s=s432hq32da64ckqj2&w=skjthkj54d2c87654&n=saq765hdkq753ca93&e=s98hat9876djt98ct&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=2dp3s4d4hppp]399|300[/hv] jurisdiction FFB / screens / rank 500 - 5000 / 100,0002♦ multi3♠alerted and explained "passe ou corrige" (= pass or correct) NS claim that they miss their game in 4S because of the lack of information.Inn their view, the exlanation should be :"L'enchère montre exactement 3 cartes à pique et au moins quatre cartes à cœur. Mon partenaire passera avec 6 cartes à pique faible et dira 4C s'il a les cœurs."The bid shows 3 spades exacty and 4 hearts at least. Opener will pass with 6 spades weak and bid 4H with 6 hearts weak. how do you rule ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 Do NS have any experience in defending against a Multi 2♦? I think it is highly unlikely that you will find someone who doesn't understand the explanation "pass or correct" in a European tournament that is played with screens. I would expect the written note to say "P/C" and nothing more, since "everybody" will understand it and writing "Pass or correct" takes more time than needed. And if NS didn't understand "Pass or correct", they could have asked for clarification. Furthermore, I suspect that the proposed correct explanation is wrong. Yes, usually West will have exactly 3 spades and 4 or more hearts, but in reality 3♠ means: I want to play 3♠ if you have spades, 4♥ (or more) if you have hearts. So, West could, e.g. also have a 25(15) hand, and bid 3♠ knowing that the opponents have a fit in a minor. Rik 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WrecksVee Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 IF the as described meaning is correct than that info and not "pass or correct" should have been explained. The agreement if exacting enough to specify exactly 3♠and 4+♥ should have been stated. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 What is the complaint? That they didn't understand the explanation, or that the explanation didn't adequately describe the type of hand that West would make it on? In either case, I don't think they have a case at this level of competition. "Pass/correct" is a common type of bid, advanced players should be well familiar with them; complaining that they don't understand it would be like saying they don't understand what "invitational" means. And the types of hands that would jump to 2♠ is a simple, logical inference. The explanation might be inadequate against inexperienced players, but it can be considered general bridge knowledge among advanced and expert players. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wank Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 you can only go so far in pandering to opponents' inability to understand basic bridge concepts. giving north/south anything here would be well over the line. 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 Unless NS can produce evidence that EW's agreement is that specific (West's hand is not evidence of that specificity) I would rule no MI, and no score adjustment. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 "Pass or correct" is definitely not a sufficient explanation of the 3♠ bid in the auction:2♦ [multi] - pass - 3♠ Why? 1: The explanation should make it clear for opponents that 3♠ is forcing to game in hearts if opener has a weak heart hand and is just for play if opener has a weak spades hand (in both cases regardless of strength). 2: The explanation should clarify the difference if the bid had been 2♠ instead of 3♠. (My Guess is that 2♠ will be invitation to game in hearts?) Opponents are not required to figure out for themselves that responder has little or no interest in the spade suit and in fact probably denies more than two cards in that suit. (2NT is a convenient bid when responder is interested in either suit). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 "Pass or correct" is definitely not a sufficient explanation of the 3♠ bid in the auction:2♦ [multi] - pass - 3♠ Why? 1: The explanation should make it clear for opponents that 3♠ is forcing to game in hearts if opener has a weak heart hand and is just for play if opener has a weak spades hand (in both cases regardless of strength). 2: The explanation should clarify the difference if the bid had been 2♠ instead of 3♠. (My Guess is that 2♠ will be invitation to game in hearts?) Opponents are not required to figure out for themselves that responder has little or no interest in the spade suit and in fact probably denies more than two cards in that suit. (2NT is a convenient bid when responder is interested in either suit).1. That a "pass or correct" 3♠ is forcing to game if opener has hearts is a matter "generally known to bridge players" since it follows from the fact that a correction will be to four hearts, which is game. As such a matter, explicit disclosure is not required. See Law 40B6{a}. 2. If responder could have bid a "pass or correct" 2♠ then yes, the meaning of that bid should be part of the disclosure. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 "Pass or correct" is definitely not a sufficient explanation of the 3♠ bid in the auction:2♦ [multi] - pass - 3♠ Why? 1: The explanation should make it clear for opponents that 3♠ is forcing to game in hearts if opener has a weak heart hand and is just for play if opener has a weak spades hand (in both cases regardless of strength)."pass or correct" means opener is expected to pass if that is his suit. If the bid were actually invitational, so that opener was expected to bid 4♠ with a max+spades, then "pass or correct" would be inadequate disclosure -- it's actually "pass, correct, or raise". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 "pass or correct" means opener is expected to pass if that is his suit. If the bid were actually invitational, so that opener was expected to bid 4♠ with a max+spades, then "pass or correct" would be inadequate disclosure -- it's actually "pass, correct, or raise".What Sven described is "pass or correct". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 What Sven described is "pass or correct". Then why did he say that it's not adequate disclosure? It seems like he has a different understanding, based on exactly the points you made in your response. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 Sven's different understanding has nothing to do with a possible raise in spades - he thinks that the fact that if opener has hearts he will correct to game requires explicit disclosure. At least, that's how I read him. IMO, though, the fact that responder has a hand that wants to be, or at least doesn't mind being, in game if opener has hearts is implicit in "knowledge generally available to bridge players" and so does not require explicit disclosure. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 Sven's different understanding has nothing to do with a possible raise in spades - he thinks that the fact that if opener has hearts he will correct to game requires explicit disclosure. At least, that's how I read him. IMO, though, the fact that responder has a hand that wants to be, or at least doesn't mind being, in game if opener has hearts is implicit in "knowledge generally available to bridge players" and so does not require explicit disclosure.The important detail which is undisclosed with a "pass or correct" explanation is that the bid in spades denies interest in spades.This effect cannot legally be hidden behind Law 40B6a: [...]he need not disclose inferences drawn from [...] experience of matters generally known to bridge players. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 The important detail which is undisclosed with a "pass or correct" explanation is that the bid in spades denies interest in spades.This effect cannot legally be hidden behind Law 40B6a: [...]he need not disclose inferences drawn from [...] experience of matters generally known to bridge players.Does it? For everyone? Or is that just the way you play it? You know, Sven, it's really not nice of you to imply I'm — or someone else who makes this argument is — trying to hide something. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted May 19, 2014 Report Share Posted May 19, 2014 The important detail which is undisclosed with a "pass or correct" explanation is that the bid in spades denies interest in spades.This effect cannot legally be hidden behind Law 40B6a: [...]he need not disclose inferences drawn from [...] experience of matters generally known to bridge players. While this is true when the P/C is at minimum level (and would be true of a 2♠ bid here), a jump to 3♠ will almost always be carrying 3 spades by GBK. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 I had understood the counter-arguments better if they had been based on (alleged) GBK: The responder forces to game opposite a weak 2 in hearts but is (more than?) satisfied playing in 3 opposite a weak 2 in spades. With either alternative he doesn't care whether opener has a minimum or a maximum strength hand. What possible hand types does that leave for responder? The meaning of most natural calls can be figured out by similar (GBK) logic, but that doesn't imply that such calls need not be (fully) explained. Law 40B6 allows the explainer to omit features that should be instantly clear to opponents, but it certainly does not expect opponents to figure out the meaning of any call by independent analysis. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 Does it? For everyone? Or is that just the way you play it? You know, Sven, it's really not nice of you to imply I'm — or someone else who makes this argument is — trying to hide something.Sure I play "multi" but a jump response to 3♠ doesn't exist in "my" system. My comment was based on GBK. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 I had understood the counter-arguments better if they had been based on (alleged) GBK: The responder forces to game opposite a weak 2 in hearts but is (more than?) satisfied playing in 3 opposite a weak 2 in spades. With either alternative he doesn't care whether opener has a minimum or a maximum strength hand. What possible hand types does that leave for responder? The meaning of most natural calls can be figured out by similar (GBK) logic, but that doesn't imply that such calls need not be (fully) explained. Law 40B6 allows the explainer to omit features that should be instantly clear to opponents, but it certainly does not expect opponents to figure out the meaning of any call by independent analysis. 3♠ is not usually "forcing to game", it's taking a sacrifice in 3♠/4♥ before the opps can get any suits in, assuming partner has a 6 card suit, it will usually thus be 3♠/4+♥ by LTT. If it's always weak, it should probably be explained as such, particularly in places where the multi is not common, but in the UK where it is common, this is just bridge. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 3♠ is not usually "forcing to game", it's taking a sacrifice in 3♠/4♥ before the opps can get any suits in, assuming partner has a 6 card suit, it will usually thus be 3♠/4+♥ by LTT. If it's always weak, it should probably be explained as such, particularly in places where the multi is not common, but in the UK where it is common, this is just bridge.With this description "pass or correct" is not only incomplete, it is directly wrong. A correct description must include "preemptive" (or similar words). 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
campboy Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 How, exactly, is "pass or correct" wrong? Partner is asked to pass (if he has spades) or correct (if he doesn't). Consequently, it must be pre-emptive. Partner, if he has spades, is being told to pass, not being invited to bid on. So it is a pre-emptive raise, not a constructive one. If partner could bid 4♠ then "pass or correct" would be MI. 4 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 How, exactly, is "pass or correct" wrong? Partner is asked to pass (if he has spades) or correct (if he doesn't). Consequently, it must be pre-emptive. Partner, if he has spades, is being told to pass, not being invited to bid on. So it is a pre-emptive raise, not a constructive one. If partner could bid 4♠ then "pass or correct" would be MI.So you never include "preemptive" in any of your explanations because that must be obvious from the circumstances? When I play Multi we explain: 2 Diamonds: Weak 6 cards in either Hearts or Spades, or 20-21 NT2 Hearts: Pass or correct2 Spades: Invitational if opener has hearts, for play if spades.2 NT: Asks for a more precise description of opener's hand. See what I mean by "full description"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 So you never include "preemptive" in any of your explanations because that must be obvious from the circumstances? When I play Multi we explain: 2 Diamonds: Weak 6 cards in either Hearts or Spades, or 20-21 NT2 Hearts: Pass or correct2 Spades: Invitational if opener has hearts, for play if spades.2 NT: Asks for a more precise description of opener's hand. See what I mean by "full description"?I miss 3♥/♠. If these bids do not exist, I doubt that your description is as full as you think it is. Most opponents will think that you would not have 3 cards in both majors when you respond 2♥. When you turn up with length in both majors, they will most likely conclude that you were trying to mess around. But you weren't messing around. You followed a special partnership agreement to not bid beyond 2♥, unless you have an invitational hand. You are one of the few who doesn't play preemptive raises of a preemptive bid. You did not disclose this agreement. This is similar to someone who plays a raise of a weak two as invitational, so he can't make the preemptive raise that everybody makes. Preemptive raises of preemptive bids are GBK. The fact that you don't follow GBK is something that you should disclose. I readily acknowledge that there are lots of weak players who don't understand what a Multi is and how to respond to it. But I don't expect to see such players in a game that is played with screens. Rik 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 I assume the explanation was written? You can't be expected to write a novel when a simple "p/c" will do for any opps who have experience defending against conventions that show length in an unknown suit. Even when giving verbal explanation, "p/c" is what people always use when explaining responses to multi. NS may not be familiar with multi but they will know what "p/c" means if they have ever come across Lebensohl, SAYC-style 2♠ response to 1NT etc. Btw, it doesn't matter whether EW had specific agreements about the major suit length promised by W. Assuming that they understood that 3♠ didn't show long spades, they missed their spade fit because they didn't have good agreements about this situation. Maybe N thought the NLM applied, or he wasn't sure what 4♠ or double would mean. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 I miss 3♥/♠. If these bids do not exist, I doubt that your description is as full as you think it is. Most opponents will think that you would not have 3 cards in both majors when you respond 2♥. When you turn up with length in both majors, they will most likely conclude that you were trying to mess around. But you weren't messing around. You followed a special partnership agreement to not bid beyond 2♥, unless you have an invitational hand. You are one of the few who doesn't play preemptive raises of a preemptive bid. You did not disclose this agreement. This is similar to someone who plays a raise of a weak two as invitational, so he can't make the preemptive raise that everybody makes. Preemptive raises of preemptive bids are GBK. The fact that you don't follow GBK is something that you should disclose. I readily acknowledge that there are lots of weak players who don't understand what a Multi is and how to respond to it. But I don't expect to see such players in a game that is played with screens. RikBy our agreement the responder to a Multi 2♦ opening bid will bid 2♥, 2♠ or 2NT (unless there is an intervening bid or Double by opener's LHO). One of the reasons for this is the existence of the strong (20-21) variant as part of Multi. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted May 20, 2014 Report Share Posted May 20, 2014 By our agreement the responder to a Multi 2♦ opening bid will bid 2♥, 2♠ or 2NT (unless there is an intervening bid or Double by opener's LHO). One of the reasons for this is the existence of the strong (20-21) variant as part of Multi. People in the UK where it's played a lot don't tend to worry about this. One useful bid if playing a multi is a 3N response that is 4-4 majors, enough to bid 3N not enough for slam opposite the strong balanced. Yes this can wrongside 3N if partner is 20-21 with no major but it gets your preempt in if partner is weak and does no harm if partner is 20-21 with a major. I think this sort of P/C after a multiway assumed weak bid by partner is just taken as weak by people over here. It only causes an issue if the 20-21 hand has exactly 3 hearts, you assume partner has enough for game and doesn't have enough to make a slam opposite 20-21 and just bid 4♥/3N with 4/2♥ respectively. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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