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Open Gambling, 1C or PAss?


  

15 members have voted

  1. 1. What do you open?

    • 1C
      4
    • Pass
      0
    • Gambling
      11


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matches the description of gambling pretty well and it is a convention

I do not mind playing Nvul (too dangerous vul) in 1st 2nd or 3rd chair.

This is a perfect 3c in PO asking p to bid 3n of near the top of their hand

and if they want to bid but cannot bid 3n to bid their weak suit to see if

5c is feasible.

 

pass in 1st 2nd or 3rd chair if gambling 3n is not available (nvul) 3c if vul

and always 3c 4th chair

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This is one of those hands where my instinct is to open 1, and that's how I voted, and then later i try to figure out why. Well, here goes.

 

When the non-clubs are more scattered, it's more reasonable to say : Well, if we have a game, it's most likely in NT so I will gamble.

On this hand, with two major stiffs, it seems more possible that a game could be in clubs.

 

Anyway, I open 1.

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On this hand, with two major stiffs, it seems more possible that a game could be in clubs.

Yes but isn't that an argument for opening 4 or maybe 5? IMO the hand isn't suitable for a 1-level opening. We know which suit we want to play in and we are quite likely to have zero defensive tricks.

 

I think I would open 4 or 5 in 1st. In 2nd I would like to show my solid suit with a 3NT opening in case partner is slamish. But I am afraid I have no way of showing two doubletons after a 3NT opening. Maybe I will just pretend to have a singleton in hearts only and then hope it isn't the spade stiff partner was looking for.

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MP's

[hv=pc=n&s=s2h2dj642cakq8642]133|100[/hv]

We had a discussion, therefore the question:

What do you open?: 1C, Pass, gambling (your choose of 3NT/3S), 3C?

Does it make a difference if you are dealer, 2nd, 3rd?

This hand was bid by someone else and discussed at the bar.

The bidding at the table was a Pass with this hand and did go like:

P-(1S)-P-(1NT)

3S-(P)-?

Axx=Axx=Axxxxx=x

This hand did bid 4D and it did go all pass.

6D was a good contract. An other player said that he liked the Pass followed by 3S. I thought opening gambling is better.

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As always with hands like this, more or less anything was possible. In this case we have a 22 point diamond slam with good chances.

 

Often hands such as this, when they come up for discussion, make 6. Else they wouldn't come up for discussion. This is not meant as a criticism just an observed fact. I realized this but attempted to ignore it in my choice of opening. I imagine it is easier to get to 6 if I open it 1 than if I open it 3NT so maybe I was not completely successful in repressing my thoughts.

 

I didn't start with a pass so it is tough to know what I would do if I had, but I think that after Pass-1-Pass] I would bid 2. My thinking would be that if the opponent's get to 4 (probably they won't on this) I can bid 4NT, while if they lack the values for 4 (as here) I will just keep bidding clubs. Maybe partner wil show his diamonds sometime.

 

I don't much like the 3 bid. Or perhaps I should say I don't understand it. Partner is to choose a call over 3. Apparently the 3 bidder thinks there may be nine tricks, presumably by running a long suit, but it's a hand he did not open at the 1 level and did not open 3NT. What's it? It seems that the actual partner wasn't too sure either, hence the 4.

 

All in all, it seems life will go easiest here if you just start with 1. But as said above, more or less anything is possible with hands like this..

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