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King of Quacks


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Whilst partner's bidding is strange, I very much doubt that he is bidding Exclusion here.

 

Therefore I pass. If partner wanted to play in 5H with these cards he should not bid 5C here.

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In either case I feel like 5 is better--unless partner has something like 1-4-1-7, and even then, there might be 11 tricks in either suit. 5.

 

Partner is probably going to hate my hand--all 8 of my pointed-suit HCP are likely to be useless. My kingdom for some aces.

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Partner didn't start with 2 clubs, yet he has game values, what is going on?

 

Partner didn't investigate 5-3 heart fit when he could, I don't understand again.

 

Starting to think he is trying for exclusion, but I am not familiar with this double shows only 1 suit thing.

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Starting to think he is trying for exclusion, but I am not familiar with this double shows only 1 suit thing.

 

I really dunno wtf exactly pd doing but i know he is not trying exclusion. Unless we have a pair of "The Hog" as opponents, i am sure they would bid their 12 card clubs at some point.http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/tongue.gif

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but I am not familiar with this double shows only 1 suit thing.

I believe it is common for a Negative Double of a Spade overcall to only suggest a hand which wanted to respond 1 and impractical to require both unbid suits before applying it. Most texts on Negative Doubles so indicate.

 

A Responsive Double, however, commonly shows both unbid suits.

 

Yes, you are correct that with game-forcing values and extremely longer Clubs, partner should have bid 2 initially. But, this guy didn't do that --- hence Wank's post #5. Partner is not making a partnership bid, and we shouldn't bother trying to figure out why; he doesn't seem to want our further input.

 

I hope he did this on V AQXX XX KJT9XXX and decided it wasn't "game-forcing values" by strict definition last round. I have a very lucky stiff Queen.

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Difficult to say what 5 means especially without knowing your system.

 

Do you play inverted in this situation?

How many diamonds shows the 1 bid and how many diamonds do you have after the 2 bid?

I think, your partner has at least 1 way to show his suit in a forcing way, but he doesn t choose such a way. Why?

 

Exclusion doesn t seem realistic cause you ve only one and opps don t bid .

 

But I know a premier league board from 2 world class player where one player psychs exclusion KC to prevent an attack in this suit and the other player doesn t believe it because of his own void in this suit. The resulting 2-0 fit wasn t a big success.

Maybe your partner tries the same thing. But that s difficult to say without knowing your system and your partner*.

If he wants to play 5 he should bid easier next time.

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If pard is reliable, he'll have something like 1426, 0427, 0526 w/ bad hearts. He can't tell whether you have 5 or 6 diamonds, so there.

 

I'll pull to 5.

Our contention is pard is not trying to be reliable; he is trying to place the contract. If I am reliable, he knows I have six diamonds. But we all know I am not.

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I have a not overly useful hand for partner and have absolutely

no problems with

 

pass

 

here. If my 14 hcp were 3 aces and the club Q I would bid 6c.

I expect p to have 4 hearts and a whole ton of clubs but not a

hand they wanted to start with 2c 1408 for ex mainly just

hoping 5c might have some play. BTW I am putting the xx card

under lock and key for the rest for the rest of this hand.

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I believe it is common for a Negative Double of a Spade overcall to only suggest a hand which wanted to respond 1 and impractical to require both unbid suits before applying it. Most texts on Negative Doubles so indicate.

 

I believe, well, I know actually, that it is very common for many players from that side of the atlantic to assume this is standard worldwide, or perhaps its only Spain who plays this double as negative.

 

If the double shows hearts, then it is not a negative double, it is a heart showing double, and you should use support double over it I suppose.

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