hrothgar Posted April 5, 2014 Report Share Posted April 5, 2014 Anyone else flashing back to the Zar Points arguments last decade Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gergana85 Posted April 7, 2014 Author Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Once we look at this wonderful collection I hope it is painfully obvious that the sum of the 2 longest suits (8)would appear to make the maximum number of losers in this hand 5----as in five hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm. About post # 24.Interesting arithmetic! In your example you think that 19 – 8 = 5(?), but I thing that 19 – 8 = 11. And once we accept that every fourth card is winning, everything falls into place.But I agree with one - to say that 19-8 = 5 is really terribly wrong. And that someone quotes him is funny.I say that Lmax = 19 - S1,2 - (P1 + P2 + P3). In the example (2-4-4-3) S1,2 = 8, (P1 + P2 + P3) = 0 and therefore Lmax = 11 (number of the losers). The fact that someone can't to calculate is at his expense.I apologize! 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gergana85 Posted April 7, 2014 Author Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Anyone else flashing back to the Zar Points arguments last decade Written in post № 1 has nothing to do with Zar Point. Moreover, it (Zar Point) is contrary to The law of the two longest suits. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 The maximum number of losers in a hand is inversely proportional to the sum of the lengths of the two longest suits. Do you know what inversely proportional means? Y inversely proportional with X means specifically that Y= c/Xwhere c is some constant. If you mean to say "the longer the two longest suits, the smaller the maximum number of losers" then say that. 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Dear gergana85, There are quite a few mathematicians, statisticians, enigineers, and beta scientists on BBF. I am sure they are able to evaluate the function Lmax given by: Lmax = lim s->0 (Sum i=1 to 3 ((3-Ni)*erf(Ni,pi,s)) + ((Sum i=1 to 3 (Ni))-10)*erf((13-Sum i=1 to 3 (Ni)),pi,s)) where Ni is the number of cards in a suit, where i specifies the number of coughs needed to indicate the suiterf(x,m,s) is the error function (integral of the normal distribution) of x with parameters m and spi is the ratio between the diameter and the circumference of a circleI think that all expert bridge players (for whom this forum is meant) are perfectly capable of evaluating this function too, even if they are not mathematicians,... etc. . After all:It's not rocket science! :PRik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 Written in post № 1 has nothing to do with Zar Point. Moreover, it (Zar Point) is contrary to The law of the two longest suits. I wasn't discussing the specific's of the equation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszes Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 I would advise learning what inversely proportional means. If other factors remain constant, ???? ??? ??? ??? has more losers than ??????? ?????? - - It's not rocket science! :P I remain totally and utterly unconvinced that your contribution to this matter is anything buta useless attempt to get in the last word. There is nothing remotely useful about this latestresponse as it completely fails to address the mathematical issues involved. The fact that it SOUNDS logical that the longer your 2 longest suits are the less losers you have does not meanthere is any practical advantage to using that theory when it comes to calculating losers in abridge hand. AKQJxxxxxxxxx void void void AKQJxxxxxxxx x void void AKQJxxxxxxx xx void voidAKQJxxxxxx xxx void voidAKQJxxxxx xxxx void voidAKQJxxxx xxxxx void voidAKQJxxx xxxxxx void voidAKQJxx xxxxxxx void voidAKQJx xxxxxxxx void voidAKQJ xxxxxxxxx void void ALL of these examples include 13 cards in the 2 longest suits the AKQJ are always in the spade suit(so we aren't splitting them up making them less useful). If the theory of inverse proportion is a reasonable premise to apply to the number of losers in a bridge hand then all of the above exampleswould yield the same number of losers. The fact that it is totally obvious that this is incorrectshould make it simple for anyone to recognize that building an entire argument based on the ideahas to be wrong and not taken seriously. My apologies if I was unclear from the beginning and I hopethis somewhat expanded version will help lay to rest any further thought that using the principlesof this particular writing are useless from a practical standpoint. If any brilliancies are derivedfrom the work they are a matter of luck not logical assumption. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted April 7, 2014 Report Share Posted April 7, 2014 My scale is the best. I am naturally born with a hidden scale in my hands. I pull the cards from the board. I move my hand holding the cards, up and down 2-3 times. It auto scales the value of the cards and i bid accordingly.http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/tongue.gif 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gergana85 Posted April 10, 2014 Author Report Share Posted April 10, 2014 I remain totally and utterly unconvinced that your contribution to this matter is anything buta useless attempt to get in the last word..... You are mistaken. The reason is that you mix (probably unintentionally) terms Maximum number of losers (Lmax) and Real number of losers (Lreal) in the hand. For each distribution, Lmax is constant and does not change. At the same time the Lreal can be changed. It should be emphasized that Lreal is equal to Lmax minus the number of winning honors. In other words Lmax characterizes the distribution strength of the hand until Lreal shows general strength of the hand. Lreal may be equal to or less than Lmax.For example in the distribution: AKQJ1098765432-void-void-void Lreal is equal to Lmax and they are nil, while in the distribution: AKQJ109876543-x-void-void Lreal is equal to 1, but Lmax is equal to 2. But in the hand: KQJ109876543-x-void-void Lreal is again equal to Lmax and they are equal to 2.Else I'm not saying that players can’t determine the Lmax without these formulas. I say (and prove) that one of the main factors determining the general strength of the hand is Lmax and it directly depends on the sum of the two longest suits. Furthermore, I show what his influence is. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lovera Posted April 12, 2014 Report Share Posted April 12, 2014 I similarly gszes said , valute 1 point from 5th. card and so on ( 5th: 1p., 6th: 2p., 7th: 3p., 8th: 4p. 9th. 5 p,...) then with 8 cards ,such as, 4 points. Have a good work. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lord Molyb Posted April 20, 2014 Report Share Posted April 20, 2014 Someone tell me why I can't just do these things by how I feel or at least just a few simple calculations? :unsure: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jogs Posted April 21, 2014 Report Share Posted April 21, 2014 Someone tell me why I can't just do these things by how I feel or at least just a few simple calculations? :unsure: Don't feel bad. The calculations are pointless. The fifth card is a long suit is worthless if you end up defending with another suit as trumps. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lovera Posted April 21, 2014 Report Share Posted April 21, 2014 Someone tell me why I can't just do these things by how I feel or at least just a few simple calculations? :unsure: I' m agree with you from the second half of your post 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gergana85 Posted April 22, 2014 Author Report Share Posted April 22, 2014 Someone tell me why I can't just do these things by how I feel or at least just a few simple calculations? :unsure:This article is proof that the distribution strength is determined directly from the sum of the two longest suits. Anyone can feel something, but not everyone can prove it. The feeling still does not prove anything. It may be true, but it cannot be true.And ask how this formula (Lmax = 19 – S1,2) is causing too much trouble? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
johnu Posted April 22, 2014 Report Share Posted April 22, 2014 This article is proof that the distribution strength is determined directly from the sum of the two longest suits. Anyone can feel something, but not everyone can prove it. The feeling still does not prove anything. It may be true, but it cannot be true.And ask how this formula (Lmax = 19 – S1,2) is causing too much trouble? Fancy formulas B-) Do you have some examples where your valuation system leads to a better result than standard methods? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted April 22, 2014 Report Share Posted April 22, 2014 And ask how this formula (Lmax = 19 – S1,2) is causing too much trouble? I doubt that the formula is causing anyone much trouble. The lack of interest probably reflects the fact that the forums spent a better part of a year trying to explain why Zar Points were badly flawed and no one wants to revisit the same discussions. If you're genuinely interested, i recommend reading the (extensive) discussion of Zar points and consider some of the comments there (especially the ones involving how best to measure the accuracy of a hand evaluation method) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted April 23, 2014 Report Share Posted April 23, 2014 This material aims to identify the factors... DEPENDENCY OF THE MAXIMUM NUMBER OF LOSERS ON THE DISTRIBUTION VERY GOOD ARTICLE ! !H!H!H Don't get discouraged by comments by the BBO Experts.They do that with every newcomer. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gergana85 Posted April 24, 2014 Author Report Share Posted April 24, 2014 The lack of interest probably reflects the fact that the forums spent a better part of a year trying to explain why Zar Points were badly flawed and no one wants to revisit the same discussions.1. I was not involved in the discussion of the Zar Points method and it had no effect on me.2. I think that Zar Points method is incorrect and it is easy to demonstrate. See the article by Mr Petkov (http://www.bridgeguys.com/pdf/ZarPoints.pdf): - In the Mr. Petkov’s formula is included the sum of the two longest suits. This is true, but why he did it, the author does not say. Perhaps the experience and the feeling are helped him. No evidence;- Mr. Petkov completely frivolous includes in his formula the sum of the difference between the longest and shortest suits. To prove his point, he using some strange mathematical formula that does not even deserve a comment. And again, no evidence. I'll just say that if I use his logic, I can to prove that the difference between the longest and shortest suits can be replaced by the difference of any other two suits. For example let a, b, c and d are the lengths of the suits in the hand. I argue that instead of (a-d), may be included (b-d), as (b-a) + (a-c) + (c-d) = (b-d). Or (a-b), because (a-c) + (c-d) + (d-b) = (a-b). These examples show that the purpose was not to find the truth, but to get a "beautiful" formula. 3. Unlike Mr. Petkov, I do not propose a model to determine the general strength of the hand. I only argue that the distribution strength of the hand depends on the sum of the two longest suits. I also show that in rare cases (wild distributions) the three longest suits affect on the distributive strength of the hand. Based on this evidence I do some conclusions. Nothing more.If you would like more information email me at: bogev53@abv.bg Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gergana85 Posted April 24, 2014 Author Report Share Posted April 24, 2014 VERY GOOD ARTICLE ! !H!H!HThanks.They cannot scare me because I speak proven truths. Moreover - they help me a lot. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
matmat Posted April 24, 2014 Report Share Posted April 24, 2014 I might be able to prove that the max number of losers in a hand is 13, but it is tough. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
matmat Posted April 24, 2014 Report Share Posted April 24, 2014 You are mistaken. The reason is that you mix (probably unintentionally) terms Maximum number of losers (Lmax) and Real number of losers (Lreal) in the hand. For each distribution, Lmax is constant and does not change. At the same time the Lreal can be changed. It should be emphasized that Lreal is equal to Lmax minus the number of winning honors. In other words Lmax characterizes the distribution strength of the hand until Lreal shows general strength of the hand. Lreal may be equal to or less than Lmax. Lreal = 13 - (tricks quitted my way) = tricks quitted their way. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mycroft Posted April 24, 2014 Report Share Posted April 24, 2014 Wow, you're better than I am matmat - Lreal = 13 - (tricks quitted my way) + 1 for the misguess + 1 for bad play - 1 for so bad play that the defence misdefended on the "that can't be right" ticket... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted April 24, 2014 Report Share Posted April 24, 2014 3. Unlike Mr. Petkov, I do not propose a model to determine the general strength of the hand. I only argue that the distribution strength of the hand depends on the sum of the two longest suits. I also show that in rare cases (wild distributions) the three longest suits affect on the distributive strength of the hand. Based on this evidence I do some conclusions. Nothing more.If you would like more information email me at: bogev53@abv.bg I couldn't care less whether your method is related to Zar Points. I referenced that discussion thread because there are some good postings that describe how one might validate a claim that "the distribution strength of the hand depends on the sum of the two longest suits". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
manudude03 Posted April 25, 2014 Report Share Posted April 25, 2014 Am I the only one who thinks that it almost irrelevant that the Maths makes sense? Putting all the parts of the equation together, you get (with a little simplifying):Lmax = 19 – S1 - S2 – ((|10 – S1| - (10 – S1)) - (|3 – S2| - (S2 - 3)) - (|3 – S3| - (3 – S3))/2 The good players will already know what their hand is worth as far as distribution goes, and the vast majority of the rest would not be willing to learn that, let alone apply it. While it does seem to work, it all seems accurate in the limited distributions I did check it with, it all seems pretty academic. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gergana85 Posted April 25, 2014 Author Report Share Posted April 25, 2014 I might be able to prove that the max number of losers in a hand is 13, but it is tough.It is not trouble. Do not even needs to prove. Take this hand: ♠xxxx♥xxx ♦xxx♣xxx How many losers in it? Obviously they are thirteen. But the question is another, and that is that each distribution has its own maximum number of losers and it varies from zero (for hand AKQJ1098765432- void-void-void) to 13 (for hand xxxx- xxx-xxx-xxx). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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