Jump to content

Rebid?


chasetb

Recommended Posts

I would bid 3. Partner's failure to rebid 2 almost guarantees two cards in a pointed suit, and often three. What's the worst that can happen? Partner is 1714, bids 3 and plays it there? Not the end of the world nonvul.

 

edit: I think I just realized the problem with this. lol

 

If partner's 2 could be a 17 count ...

This sounds weird to me, do people really play this way?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

This sounds weird to me, do people really play this way?

I thought this was a pretty standard top end value for those not playing a Gazzilli type artificial rebid. How strong do you need to be to jump to 3? Any weaker than 17/18 and it makes contracts very flaky opposite a minimum non-fitting partner - like this one without the Ace of clubs.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Is your style with 6-4 to rebid 2 or 2m ?

 

Qx, QJ109xx, KJ, KJ10 for example is no great hand but will make 3N, a bigger danger is something like Ax, QJ9xxx, AJxx, x if you rebid 2 with this where if all goes well you could conceivably make 13 tricks in diamonds rather than 9 in hearts and 5 is probably where you want to be.

 

3 is a serious overbid, I'd bid 2N.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If I continue on it has to be 3d as 2nt might get partner to jump to 4 expecting some trumps in my hand. Partner could have a 3622 and 4 is a good show. Or it could all go pear shaped!

 

Imps I will give it a go for the game bonus is worth a little stretch and at pairs scoring I think I will pass as the risk/reward isn't that great.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

We don't play Gazzilli or Bart, so 1 could be up to a 16 (rarely a 17 count). I admit this isn't the best, but I was playing what partner knew.

 

All 12+ HCP hands are opened, otherwise rule of 20.

 

With 6-4m, it depends. Generally with extra strength or a good side-suit, we rebid the minor. If the side suit is garbage (Jxxx or worse) and the Heart suit is really good, then 2.

 

With 3-6, partner usually rebids Hearts, but can support Spades with shortness and/or nice Spades and bad Hearts. With 3-6-(0-4) I would hope partner doesn't rebid Hearts, but we don't play that often together.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

This sounds weird to me, do people really play this way?

Yes, especially if they are too strict with the suit quality and/or spots they jump with. You can check the past topics and you will see we have a lot of people who are strict on this and there are others who can jump with AQxxxx,setting the priority to the invitation limit instead of suit quality.

 

If I continue on it has to be 3d as 2nt might get partner to jump to 4 expecting some trumps in my hand.

I don't think 2 NT promise any hearts at all. There are a lot of hands with 0-1 hearts and 11-12 hcps, which can not make GF, and where pass could be underbid. And with doubleton hearts, responder could have raised hearts himself after pd promised 6 of them.

 

But the hand we hold now is much closer to pass than 2 NT. I would pass.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I'm bidding 3. Game is still not out of the question and unless partner has a semi-solid heart suit, there is very likely a better spot than this. It could be 5, 4, 3NT or a part-score in any of 4 different strains (excluding clubs).

 

If he comes back 3, I'm finished... and not sure what I'd do if it goes 3 doubled back to me. I would probably stick it.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I'm bidding 3. Game is still not out of the question and unless partner has a semi-solid heart suit, there is very likely a better spot than this. It could be 5, 4, 3NT or a part-score in any of 4 different strains (excluding clubs).

 

If he comes back 3, I'm finished... and not sure what I'd do if it goes 3 doubled back to me. I would probably stick it.

 

Isn't 3 GF so 3 doesn't have to be minimum ?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I was playing with Wbridge5 at the time. The auction it wanted had West barging in with 2 after 1, then a support X and a jump to game by South. After forcing West to pass again, here's the auction and the hands:

[hv=pc=n&s=skj932hdqt543ca42&w=sqt4hj74dj7ckqjt9&n=sa76hkqt9632dk2c3&e=s85ha85da986c8765&d=w&v=e&b=16&a=p1hp1sp2hp3dp4sppp]399|300[/hv]

 

To be honest, I would probably pass at the table. It's interesting that both 4 and 4 makes. I know someone posted awhile back about opening 4 on these kinds of hands, and it pays off in spades here (horrible pun intended). Looking through the posts on here, I came up with an idea, probably a bad one but maybe worth exploring. For this, I am assuming the partnership isn't willing to change 1-1 to 5+ .

 

If the hand in question was able to show at least 5-4 and INV+ values, then this thin game might be reached. I am thinking that 3 by responder would definitely do the trick. Since this hurts the GF Spades-Clubs hands, then I also suggest putting 5-5 black hands into 2, but only making it forcing for 1 round. So, you get the auction 1-2 ; 2 - 2 as INV+ , but initially only promising 4 Spades. Partner would show 3-card support via 2NT, and it still is reached.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

[hv=pc=n&s=skj932hdqt543ca42&w=sqt4hj74dj7ckqjt9&n=sa76hkqt9632dk2c3&e=s85ha85da986c8765&d=w&v=e&b=16&a=p1hp1sp2hp3dp4sppp]399|300[/hv]

 

It's interesting that both 4 and 4 makes. I know someone posted awhile back about opening 4 on these kinds of hands, and it pays off in spades here (horrible pun intended).

So the only options with the North hand are

 

1) open 4

 

2) rebid 2(!) when partner responds 1?

 

What is wrong with rebidding 4 when partner responds 1?

I frankly admit my game bids are not underwritten by Lloyds.

If I am recovering from a long depression I might rebid only 3 to give partner a chance to pass with a misfit and minimum values.

 

Rainer Herrmann

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If the hand in question was able to show at least 5-4 and INV+ values, then this thin game might be reached.

Why are the diamonds necessary? I can show an invite with 5+ spades via 1 - 1(relay); 1NT(min) - 2, after which it is easy. As with Rainer, I far prefer 1 - 1; 4 than a direct 4 opening. Many also use gadgets to be able to show a 1-suiter with 3 card support, which would also be the route in my system if a card is transferred from South to North (1 - 1NT(, NF); 2NT(3, INV) - 4).

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...