wyman Posted December 10, 2013 Report Share Posted December 10, 2013 Friend gave me some hands from a recent Swiss. KJxxxx KTxx void Kxx 1N (15-17) -- 2C2S -- 3H (ambiguous splinter, slammish)3S (asks). -- 4C (diamonds)4D -- 4H4S -- ?? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted December 10, 2013 Report Share Posted December 10, 2013 I pass. 4♦ seems like the Ace and that is great for parking my third club but I need very specific cards in order to make slam a good proposition. With those cards partner might as well have asked himself. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted December 10, 2013 Report Share Posted December 10, 2013 Friend gave me some hands from a recent Swiss. KJxxxx KTxx void Kxx1N (15-17) -- 2C2S -- 3H (ambiguous splinter, slammish)3S (asks). -- 4C (diamonds)4D -- 4H4S -- ?? IMO Pass = 10, 5♣ = 9 Agree with Hanoi5 that partner seems to have ♦A. Holding 3 or more aces, he might have made another try. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
quiddity Posted December 10, 2013 Report Share Posted December 10, 2013 Pass. I showed a slammish hand with an aceless 10-count and then bid last-train when partner cuebid my void. I think I've done enough. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Endymion77 Posted December 10, 2013 Report Share Posted December 10, 2013 Looks like partner has no club control but I'm not sure if K qualifies with the lead going through my hand in a spade contract (partner might have the Q though). We can also be off 2 aces easily. So I would just pass. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted December 10, 2013 Report Share Posted December 10, 2013 IMO, the question is asked completely in the wrong way. Asking what to do now risks problems. If you take any action here, the opponents may suspect a read on a hesitation or lack thereof, and you risk problems with decisions being overturned. The best course is to plan what to do after partner bids 4♦. You decide at that point: 1. Bid 4♦ and respect a signoff, 2. Bid 4♦ and then immediately bid again as part of a complete approach, or 3. Do something other than bidding 4♦. You might object that you then have to think before bidding 4♦ if that is your choice, which creates the same problem. This is false, IMO, because a hesitation should be deemed automatic before anything that is "Last Train," whether played as the LTTC convention or merely "last train" in the sense of the last possible cuebid below game. In fact, that is the beauty of Last Train. The call could be described as a legal hesitation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted December 10, 2013 Report Share Posted December 10, 2013 I showed a spade fit in a slammish hand, diamond shortness, then I made a further try by bidding 4♥. Partner subsided in 4♠. I think I have done enough. This hand could produce a slam opposite the right cards. Partner said that he believes that he does not have the right cards. You should respect that decision. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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