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Why raise the level?


1eyedjack

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[hv=lin=pn|1eyedjack,~~M28391,~~M28389,~~M28390|st%7C%7Cmd%7C2S34QAH7KD39QC4JQK%2CSTKH34TQAD67TC26A%2CS2578JH28JD258JC3%2C%7Crh%7C%7Cah%7CBoard%208%7Csv%7Co%7Cmb%7C1H%7Can%7CMajor%20suit%20opening%20--%205%2B%20H%3B%2011-21%20HCP%3B%2012-22%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C2H%7Can%7CSimple%20raise%20--%203%2B%20H%3B%207-10%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cd%7Can%7CTakeout%20double%20--%203%2B%20C%3B%203%2B%20D%3B%202-%20H%3B%204%2B%20S%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C2S%7Can%7C4%2B%20S%3B%209-%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C3H%7Can%7C5%2B%20H%3B%2011%2B%20HCP%3B%2012-17%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cd%7Can%7CTakeout%20double%20--%203%2B%20C%3B%203%2B%20D%3B%202-%20H%3B%204%2B%20S%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C4D%7Can%7CCue%20bid%20--%204%2B%20S%3B%207-%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C4S%7Can%7C3%2B%20C%3B%203%2B%20D%3B%202-%20H%3B%204%2B%20S%3B%2017-21%20total%20poin%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cpc%7CDK%7Cpc%7CD3%7Cpc%7CD6%7Cpc%7CD2%7Cpc%7CH5%7Cpc%7CH7%7Cpc%7CHQ%7Cpc%7CH2%7Cpc%7CHA%7Cpc%7CH8%7Cpc%7CH9%7Cpc%7CHK%7Cpc%7CD7%7Cpc%7CD5%7Cpc%7CDA%7Cpc%7CD9%7Cpc%7CD4%7Cpc%7CDQ%7Cpc%7CDT%7Cpc%7CD8%7Cpc%7CCK%7Cpc%7CCA%7Cpc%7CC3%7Cpc%7CC5%7Cpc%7CC2%7Cpc%7CS2%7Cpc%7CC7%7Cpc%7CC4%7Cpc%7CS5%7Cpc%7CS6%7Cpc%7CSA%7Cpc%7CST%7Cpc%7CS3%7Cpc%7CSK%7Cpc%7CS7%7Cpc%7CS9%7Cpc%7CH3%7Cpc%7CHJ%7Cpc%7CH6%7Cpc%7CCJ%7Cpc%7CS8%7Cpc%7CC9%7Cpc%7CSQ%7Cpc%7CHT%7Cpc%7CCQ%7Cpc%7CC6%7Cpc%7CDJ%7Cpc%7CCT%7Cpc%7CS4%7Cpc%7CH4%7Cpc%7CSJ%7Cpc%7CC8%7C]380|270[/hv]

 

According to the explanation, South's second double confims a 9 card Spade fit. Why, then, with such weakness, does North not simply sign out in 3? Even if there were a risk on the bidding that South might have only 3 x , should not North still bid 3, holding 5 of them?

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3 shows 16+ TP and same shape. Should be a top range, but at the moment is not really limited.

 

Deducing 3 would show 18+, so 3 is probably 16-18, although not emphasized.

So, South's pass should deny 16+; therefore, his second double should show something like 14-15 total points, not 16+?

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On the actual hand, GIB aside, I feel that my initial pass of 2S was correct.

Both opponents are bidding, partner could have a bust (indeed nearly did), he may have only 3 x S for 2S bid, and I don’t fancy assigning much value to the HK (OK that last may be beyond GIB).

West might yet have values that would have bid again had I not Doubled 2S.

Add it all up and yes, there is as outside chance of game our way, but a far greater chance that 2S is our limit. The dynamic changes a bit when 3H returns to me, but still on a lot of hands defending 3H will be right, and my decision to back in was not gold plated.

Bottom line is I don’t much like where this thread is going, if with this hand I am supposed to make an immediate move over 2S.

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On the actual hand, GIB aside, I feel that my initial pass of 2S was correct...

Bottom line is I don’t much like where this thread is going, if with this hand I am supposed to make an immediate move over 2S.

I agree that your initial pass of 2S was correct; my comments are to demonstrate that GIB's system/explanations are not internally consistent. There should be various non-overlapping options for South:

  • weakest is to pass both 2 and 3
  • next weakest is to pass 2 then take action over 3
  • next is to bid 3 over 2
  • strongest is to bid 3 over 2

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