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What I really want to say is every reverse of responder must show 65 suits with invitation hcp and nf,It's completely different with the traditional usage,but It's more resonable for space.

Becouse

1 Responder with invitation hcp must complete describtion of 65 suits exactly under 2nt.So only this way can complete this requirements.

2 with xyz style you always have chance to checback to find 4 cards of or ,so no need to reverse when responder has only 4 cards of or

for exampl:

[hv=pc=n&s=skj974h8daqj742c8&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp]133|200[/hv]

which one will you choice 1 or 1

1、if 1-1-1 how will you go on?and if 1-1-1-1-openner bid-2 then you showed your shape but this sequence is gf or nf?

2、if 1-1-1-2 and you must bid 3s to show your 65 shape,but you maybe overbid with just invitating hcp

3、if 1-1-1nt after this sequence you can't describe your shape exactly,then both of you maybe miss 5/6.which one do you choice with xyz style if you 1-1-1n-2-2-2,you showed your hcp but your shape can't be shown enough

so how do you describe your 65 with invitating hcp?

Responder must describe 65 with invitating hcp under 2nt,becouse both of you maybe haven't fitting suit,but how do you realize it?

Maybe this way is ok,with xyz style

1、1-1-1-2=d6s5 invitation and nf

2、1-1-1-2-2-2=54 invitation

3、1-1-1-2=gameforce checkback responder maybe with 4+ or 4+

Is it ok?

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I play a xyz style "a la Hamman" where over 2 partner will puppet to 2 unless he has three cards in responder's major.

I consider this style to be superior.

 

So if I respond 1 I could continue with 2 over 1NT.

Over 2 --> 4

Over 2 --> 3.

 

However, I consider this hand too strong for 2. There might be no game but there might also be slam.

I would bid 2 (xyz) and follow up with 3.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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I would not for even one second consider any invitational sequences for this monster. If partner has a heart-club two-suiter, then I may get us too high on the misfit, but that will not be a first (or last).

 

For much of my life, I would have always chosen to start with diamonds and reverse into spades (but we must be careful about our agreements re 1C-1D-1H-1/2S sequences). I have now switched to a more pragmatic approach to bidding 5M-6m hands. I tend to bid them as if they were 5-5 (i.e. major first even when minor is longer) unless we have some specific agreement. Too many times, the auction has gotten out of hand before I am actually able to convince partner that the major is really a 5 banger. So, I would start with a 1 bid intending to make a game-forcing call in diamonds next. If partner rebids 1N (I will be elated as now the misfit is no longer an issue) and we are playing normallish xyz, then a 3D rebid would seem appropriate (5S-5D, GF, values concentrated in long suits).

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You conflate two problems: GF v shape.

How do I know if I'm game forcing before I show this rare shape?

Fit makes slam close; misfit makes no game likely.

Show your shape, let partner announce his fit and going up, or misfit quitting.

I don't think any min/inv/GF can get out below 3-suit

- likely not liking this high on a misfit.

But must show this 6-5 because it plays very big on a fit.

Is that what you intended your question for? Which rebids scream misfit => quit?

Thus which others suggest fit => going up?

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What I really want to say is every reverse of responder must show 65 suits with invitation hcp and nf,It was completely different with the traditional usage,but It's more resonable for space.

Becouse

1 Responder with invitation hcp must complete describtion of 65 suits exactly under 2nt.So only this way can complete this requirements.

2 with xyz style you always have chance to checback to find 4 cards of or ,so no need to reverse when responder has only 4 cards of or

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