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Game all at IMPs (24-board match). Playing weak NT and 4cM.

 

1) In first seat would you open this?

A

9xxx

QJxx

A10xx

 

If so, what do you do after 1D-1S; 2C-2H*, where 2H is 4th suit, forcing for one round?

 

2) Same question, but in third seat this time:

QJ9x

KQJxx

xx

xx

 

Here the auction, if you open 1H, is p-(p)-1H-(X); XX-(p)-p-(2C); 2D-(p). What's your call?

 

Thanks,

 

ahydra

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Game all at IMPs (24-board match). Playing weak NT and 4cM.

 

1) In first seat would you open A 9xxx QJxx A10xx.

If so, what do you do after 1D-1S; 2C-2H*, where 2H is 4th suit, forcing for one round?

 

2) Same question, but in third seat this time: QJ9x KQJxx xx xx

Here the auction, if you open 1H, is p-(p)-1H-(X); XX-(p)-p-(2C); 2D-(p). What's your call?

IMO

 

1)

  • As opener: Pass = 10, 1 = 8. 1 = 7, 1 = 6. In first two seats, discretion is the better part of valour because 4441 hands with a singleton honour are useful in defence.
  • After 1-1-??: 1N = 10, 2 = 8.
  • After 1-1-; 2 - 2 -; ??: 2N = 10, 3 = 6. Not a pleasant predicament.

2)

  • Third in hand, 1 = 10, 1 = 7, Pass = 5.
  • After p (p) 1 (X); XX (p) ??: 1 (Submin opener) = 10; 1N (Submin) = 9; Pass (Sound opener) = 4.
  • After p (p) 1 (X); XX (p) P (2); 2 (p) ??: Pass (Chance to escape alive) = 10; 2 = 4.

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On the second hand it doesn't go like that, 1-X-XX-P-1 says I have a bad hand, pass is better than that.

 

On the first, I'd probably lie with 2N.

These are, IMO, the best answers under the conditions given. On the first, however, we wouldn't open a 1-bid light in a Minor suit when we can predict awkward rebids and continuations as we can here.

 

On the Second hand, we fully agree with Cyber that it wouldn't go like that ---but wouldn't open 1H, either. This will be a minority view, but I would consider 2H or PASS in 3rd chair...again anticipating continuation problems from the 1-bid.

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1) In first seat would you open this?

A

9xxx

QJxx

A10xx

 

If so, what do you do after 1D-1S; 2C-2H*, where 2H is 4th suit, forcing for one round?

 

Whether I consider this an opening or not, what I really question is why I am playing 4th suit forcing for one round.

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People don't seem to think opening 1H is good because of the horribleness of the suit, which I agree with. However, alternative scenario. If you were playing 5 card majors and 1D = 4+ diamonds, unbalanced hand, and the auction 1D-1S-1NT was an unbalanced hand with 4+ diamonds and 4 hearts, would anyone open the first hand 1D?
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IMO

 

1)

  • As opener: Pass = 10, 1 = 8. 1 = 7, 1 = 6. In first two seats, discretion is the better part of valour because 4441 hands with a singleton honour are useful in defence.
  • After 1-1-??: 1N = 10, 2 = 8.
  • After 1-1-; 2 - 2 -; ??: 2N = 10, 3 = 6. Not a pleasant predicament.

2)

  • Third in hand, 1 = 10, 1 = 7, Pass = 5.
  • After p (p) 1 (X); XX (p) ??: 1 (Submin opener) = 10; 1N (Submin) = 9; Pass (Sound opener) = 4.
  • After p (p) 1 (X); XX (p) P (2); 2 (p) ??: Pass (Chance to escape alive) = 10; 2 = 4.

 

The OP states weak no trump, so 1-1-1N shows a 15 count on hand 1.

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Thanks for responses all. As you might have guessed I opened both of these. On the first one I bid 3D over 2H (ugh, but I don't have a heart stop; I think 2NT is better though) which did not play well for -200. Agree pass is much better.

 

On the second one I took nige1's suggestion of passing 2D and that also went for -200. Partner had Ax hearts, so 2H would probably fare a bit better.

 

Team-mates picked up 100 on both so that was 3 IMPs out on each - much better than I deserved, perhaps, but ruined what would have otherwise been a pretty awesome scorecard as those were the only boards on which we dropped IMPs. :)

 

ahydra

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On hand 1 I pass although I might have opened 1NT under other circumstances. As it is I will bid 2NT (non-forcing in your methods?)

 

On hand 2 I open 1 but I am not sure if it's a good idea to let redouble create an FP opposite that kind of openers. Anyway, partner's 2 makes it a non-problem, what can be wrong with pass? If I wanted to play 2 I would have opened 2.

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On hand 1 I pass although I might have opened 1NT under other circumstances. As it is I will bid 2NT (non-forcing in your methods?)

 

On hand 2 I open 1 but I am not sure if it's a good idea to let redouble create an FP opposite that kind of openers. Anyway, partner's 2 makes it a non-problem, what can be wrong with pass? If I wanted to play 2 I would have opened 2.

 

1) yes, 2NT would be non-forcing. Seems to be a popular choice and I did consider it before wimping out - sometimes if partner has Jx or something, your 9 will grow up into a stop.

 

2) The pass of redouble hasn't really been discussed. It was just intended as "I'm happy playing 1HXX". I don't think we play anything as forcing simply because of an XX.

 

I can see the logic in playing pass as stronger than minimum and take out the XX with a weak opener - I'll point partner at this thread and see what he thinks.

 

ahydra

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#1 No

 

assuming I would have done it anyway, I have to sell 9xxx as a stopper, i.e 2NT.

 

#2 No, I prefer 2H, instead of 1H, but at least I can understand, why one would open 1H,

but I dont corrupt my constructive opening bids, I use my destructive opening bids, raising

the level, but this is not mainstream

Now 2H, XX should show secondary support in the given seq.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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