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Punting speculative slams again


1eyedjack

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IMP, robot tourney, best hand South

 

This is such a regular happenstance that I think that it needs to be addressed, and I shall continue posting examples of it until it does.

 

Mousing over my alternatives over 2 I find that 3 is non-forcing. Ugh. So I manufacture 2 in the hope that partner doesn't raise it. He doesn't. Phew.

 

So when he bids 3 I am seriously worried about the hearts running against 3N (I assume that with Hearts covered he would bid 2N). I also have some magic Diamonds, a hand rich in controls, a source of tricks and no more than 2 cashing Hearts against Diamonds.

 

OK, so the Hearts break 4-4 and 3N rolls in, but I thought that 5 was the right spot. And with the benefit of hindsight I stand by that decision. We have rather telegraphed a Heart lead for when they don't break 4-4.

 

We are only forcing as far as 3N so 4 is non-forcing. So I bid 5 only to get hung by partner.

 

Usually, it is partner punting 7 over 6 on general values.

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I suppose that 5D must be a slam try of sorts. The 1D opener carries a vast range: 11-21 HCP and 12-22 total points. Nothing in the bidding up to and including 3D has narrowed that limit. I was bidding 5D to make opposite what might be 11 HCP and 12 total points, albeit perhaps not underwitten by guarantees. If opener has 21 HCP and 22 total points opposite such a responder he should reasonably expect slam to have play. Furthermore unless 5D is very narrowly defined whether to bid it will likely have to involve a degree of speculation. My information is now tainted but I honestly think that I would not have raised with this North.

 

I confess that I have a bit of trouble generally with 2 over 1 GF systems that use up all the bids up to 3N in order to narrow down distribution to the n’th degree without any attempt to limit the hand strength until the 4 level. But I guess that is my problem and I will have to address it.

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A lot of this doesn't make sense to me. I thought GIB played 2/1, so how can 1D-2C-2D-3C be NF? And given we're GF (but maybe even if not), isn't it standard for 5m in this type of auction to be a signoff, with 4m forcing and showing slam interest?

 

No way should 5D show 19+ points. 4D should be something like 16+, 5D 11-15.

 

ahydra

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A lot of this doesn't make sense to me. I thought GIB played 2/1, so how can 1D-2C-2D-3C be NF? And given we're GF (but maybe even if not), isn't it standard for 5m in this type of auction to be a signoff, with 4m forcing and showing slam interest?

 

No way should 5D show 19+ points. 4D should be something like 16+, 5D 11-15.

 

ahydra

 

GiB does not play 1D-2C as GF, all other 2/1s are GF though.

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To expand on manudude03 response, it is quite common in some 2/1 GF systems for (uncontested) 1-2 not to be GF, for the simple reason that 1-1N is non-forcing and limited to a classical non-forcing 1N response.

 

Much depends on how you define 1-2N and 1-3, and there are a wealth of possibilities which different 2/1 systems make use of, some of which may free up the 2 response for purely GF hand types.

 

Suffice it to confirm for this purpose that I checked before bidding that 2 response is not GF in this system, and that indeed a 3 rebid by responder (where I actually bid 2) would have been non-forcing. Remember also that inverted minor raises are not GF in GIBberish.

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