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1eyedjack

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OK I know I should have pulled the double to 6 anyway, and I am sure that GIB would have done if sitting South.

 

That said and done, what on earth is North playing at doubling in the first place?

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  • 2 weeks later...

Why you should pull to 6?

 

GIB insisting on fit in hearts. 1-TP is of course absurd, but still that's the suit you should play.

 

With the normal lead in spades, 6 is easily made. Double dummy 6 is not always the contract you would like to be, next time would be void in hearts and 6 would go down.

 

Declarer is still North, so direct diamond lead is impossible. Defense must figure it out to lead first club.

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I don't intend to get drawn into a debate about the merits of South pulling the double, whether to 6 or 6 or 5N or whatever.

 

Suffice it to say that

(1) I remain of the opinion that 6 is correct, that I feel that I should have found it despite the double of 5 but that the double did not help in that it was a factor which influenced my pass, and

(2) Whatever happens to make or not make on this hand, perhaps by accident of who happens to be declarer, as a general principle when choosing between two slams I would rather bid one in which I have a 12 card trump fit over one in which I have a 9 card fit. If the former happens to be a minor suit and the latter a major suit this is unlikely to influence my preference

 

I don't intend to get drawn into that debate because this thread is not about South's actions or competence, but about trying to improve GIB's bidding, and in particular (in this occasion) the GIB sitting North.

 

As soon as South bids 2N, North is aware that we have a minimum of a 9 card Heart fit and a minimum of a 10 card Diamond fit. Its decision to bid 4 can hardly be faulted. It may be rather unlikely that he will buy the contract at 4 given the massive double fit, but there is nothing wrong with trying, and slam does seem a long way off despite the fits. In a live human event I like to think that I would bid an immediate 5 (where GIB bid 4), recognising that 4 was never going to end the auction and that over anything that E/W did I would be committing to 5 anyway. But 4 it is.

 

South's subsequent decision to bid 5 carries with it some information, namely that he has additional distribution not previously promised by the 2N bid, and that additional distribution is manifest in extra Diamond length. So, South is now known to be AT LEAST 5-6 in hearts and diamonds respectively.

 

Let us now examine the merits North's decision to give preferance from an 11+ diamond fit to a 9 card heart fit, by converting 5 to 5

1) Hearts scores more (if both make 11+, and if allowed to play there). This argues for removing to 5

2) Diamonds is a safer contract, and both are game contracts for the same number of tricks. This argues for passing 5

3) Bidding 5 gives West another chance to bid. This argues for passing 5

4) Bidding 5 conceals the Diamond fit from the opponents. This argues for bidding 5

 

I don't believe that I have mentioned yet in this thread that the hand was at MP scoring, which possibly elevates the priority of factor 1. On the other hand, re. factor 2 if 5 makes and 5 fails then playing in 5 may not be a success even at MP scoring. Personally I rate factors 3 and 4 as being higher priority than either 1 or 2, with factor 4 being a close winner. Whether it makes or fails, any action that allows you to end up playing in 5 of either red suit is going to bring in an above average result. At the end of the day I am fairly relaxed about whether North should bid 5.

 

Crunch time is when the auction is back with North at 5. And here I think that the (only) really criminal act, and the one act that Georgi you have not commented on, is its decision to double 5 (regardless of whether or not South should pull it). This really is an appalling error of judgement and is really the only reason why I posted the hand at all.

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