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Break in Tempo


bixby

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[hv=pc=n&e=sak3hakt84djt43c6&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1hp4cp4hp4sp5dp6hppp]133|200[/hv]

 

BAM teams, both sides vulnerable, West dealer. ACBL jurisdiction.

 

4 was alerted and explained as a splinter. There was a mild break in tempo before the 4 bid. North called the Director after the 4 bid to point out the break in tempo. Declarer made 7. At the end of play North recalled the Director and suggested that East was obliged to pass after 4.

 

How do you rule?

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I should have mentioned that the splinter was explained as showing 10-14 HCP. East stated his reasoning as being that he felt he had extras, given his additional strength and fifth heart, and thought a slam try was appropriate even opposite a partner who had not gone forward after the splinter.
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I'm tempted to allow this one. Certainly I would bid 4S without the hesitation, so I'm not convinced pass is an LA, but I'll concede the votes of the poll
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I'd like to hear East's reasoning and why I should not give him a PP.

He could argue that he is heavy for his bid (this was added after your post), or perhaps that partner's 4 with weak trumps is predictable. Anyway, I don't think a pp is appropriate.

 

I poll it, without the tempo break, of course, and see what East's LAs are. Then, if I find pass is an LA for East, I roll it back. If I find pass isn't an LA, there is no infraction.

Agree, I think this case is close enough that a poll is warranted.

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While I think the 4 cue is called for, a 5 bid comes next and if West raised that, fine but blasting 6 potentially off 2 aces is very uncool when imo the tank removes that possibility.

 

A "mild" tank is of course up for debate as in it is or it isn't a tank but the act of blasting 6 certain you are off the club Ace leads me to believe it was enough to transmit UI.

 

So I'm rolling it back but to 5 and agree with the PP. N/S objected to the 4 call while I object to the 6 one regardless of a poll on the 4 bid.

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jeffford76, East did not use the skip bid warning.

 

This is irrelevant as to whether South is required to pause.

 

That is probably true regardless of jurisdiction, but whether South is required to pause obviously depends on the local regulation.

 

In Norway he is entitled, but not required to a pause, and West is entitled to a pause if South calls before ten seconds have elapsed after East's skip bid.

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Assuming that a spinter for them shows something like 11-15 or 19+ (this is a fairly typical agreement), I roll it back to 4.

I do not understand this. If playing 4 as a split-range splinter then it is clear that East is treating it as the stronger range and is committing themselves to bidding on. If "10-14 hcp" is an accurate description of the agreements then it was simply a bad bid. I suspect that this is not really a full description though - would a hand with 14hcp, 5+ card support and a side void qualify? really? Finally, do we know what 4 would have meant over 4?

 

In any case, I cannot see how a ruling can be given without knowing whether the "mild BIT" was within the regulations or not. If the OP was one of N-S, I suspect the answer to jefford's question is that South did not pause. It would certainly be very strange if none of the four players noticed and a pair tends to discuss these situations afterwards. So the next question is just how long the mild BIT was.

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"Mild" was North's description of West's BIT. (Actually, he may have said "brief" or "short," I don't remember exactly). I would estimate it was a break of an extra 5-7 seconds beyond the normal bidding time. It certainly wasn't an extra minute or anything like that. West did not deny that there was a break in tempo.

 

As I mentioned upthread, the Director did not inquire whether South paused following the 4 bid. I appreciate the suggestion that West may have been privileged to pause because of South's failure to do so, but I would also be interested in people's opinions as to the proper ruling if we make the assumption that South acted appropriately and that West did break tempo (not egregiously, but noticeably) before bidding 4. So let's assume that there was a break in tempo.

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I mentioned up thread that I believe the leap to 6 is reason enough to believe UI happened.

 

I have no problem with the auction through 5 despite that but without the UI 5 shows the slam try by east and I'm enforcing that as the final contract even if west owns a raise because of east using the UI to get there.

 

Focusing on the 4 bid instead of this one may cloud the real issue for the director imo as I believe a poll on the 4 bid (without the hesitation) would show strong support for it. But 6, no way.

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Did South pause for the full ten seconds after the 4 bid? If South transgressed, then West lost time he was entitled to use to think without giving UI.

 

Even so, I cannot imagine East not moving over 4H. All he knows is that West is either minimum or has club wastage. East could be facing xx Jxxxx KQx AQx which will certainly sign off opposite a splinter, but slam is good.

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