Free Posted October 12, 2013 Report Share Posted October 12, 2013 Last week I held the following hand: ♠K9752 ♥T92 ♦98543 ♣-. It was imps, I forgot the vulnerability, it was a dull hand irl, but I have a few hypothetical questions. Partner opened 1NT (15-17, can have 5M) and for a second I wondered about bidding 2♣ regular Stayman (doesn't include light invites with 5(+)♠ though) instead of the normal transfer. After a 2♦ or 2♥ response you'd probably be in a decent spot, but you might miss a better ♠ fit (especially after a 2♥ response). How much merit does it have in your opinion? - If 1NT-2♣-2red-2♠ would be INV with 5+♠, would you start with 2♣ or transfer (planning to signoff)?- If 1NT-2♣-2red-2♠ would NOT be INV with 5+♠, would you start with 2♣ or transfer?- If you decide to transfer, partner super accepts, and you can show ♣ shortness now, would you do it or would you just retransfer to 3♠?- If the Majors were reversed, would you consider 2♣ regular Stayman now? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DJNeill Posted October 12, 2013 Report Share Posted October 12, 2013 It's not far from 4351 which many of us would Stayman on. I like transfer to 2S partly because the King is in that suit, but also because if they get into the auction, in some situations we can back in with 3D. Also, 2C allows them to double and possibly take us higher than we would prefer. If 2H was superaccepted with a normal superaccept or a good superaccept, I will go back to 3S (via retransfer if needed). If there are 3 superaccepts where one is the 17 4fit with a ruffing value, I will bid game at IMPs. Thanks,Dan 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted October 12, 2013 Report Share Posted October 12, 2013 I agree with Dan with an emphasis on 2♣ making it easy for them to come in. We have shape, they may too. They may be able to come in anyway, (the vul is a factor there) and we could well end up defending something even doubled and such as it is this is where our defense lies and my partnership plays so many super accepts it's not out of the question to find a magic game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted October 12, 2013 Report Share Posted October 12, 2013 1. Stayman & 2S = a classic in SEF: inviting2. Stayman3. retransfer4. NO Btw, I hope your 1NT=15-17, else I change my answers. ♥ Last week I held the following hand: ♠K9752 ♥T92 ♦98543 ♣-. It was imps, I forgot the vulnerability, it was a dull hand irl, but I have a few hypothetical questions. Partner opened 1NT (15-17, can have 5M) and for a second I wondered about bidding 2♣ regular Stayman (doesn't include light invites with 5(+)♠ though) instead of the normal transfer. After a 2♦ or 2♥ response you'd probably be in a decent spot, but you might miss a better ♠ fit (especially after a 2♥ response). How much merit does it have in your opinion? - If 1NT-2♣-2red-2♠ would be INV with 5+♠, would you start with 2♣ or transfer (planning to signoff)?- If 1NT-2♣-2red-2♠ would NOT be INV with 5+♠, would you start with 2♣ or transfer?- If you decide to transfer, partner super accepts, and you can show ♣ shortness now, would you do it or would you just retransfer to 3♠?- If the Majors were reversed, would you consider 2♣ regular Stayman now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted October 12, 2013 Report Share Posted October 12, 2013 - If 1NT-2♣-2red-2♠ would be INV with 5+♠, Why would this method be played if transfers are being played? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 12, 2013 Author Report Share Posted October 12, 2013 Why would this method be played if transfers are being played?You can find lots of threads about this topic, so lets not get off topic here please. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted October 12, 2013 Report Share Posted October 12, 2013 I think I'd do this if my spades and diamonds were reversed, but on the actual hand it seems like spades will play okay opposite a doubleton. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted October 13, 2013 Report Share Posted October 13, 2013 Last week I held the following hand: ♠K9752 ♥T92 ♦98543 ♣-. It was imps, I forgot the vulnerability, it was a dull hand irl, but I have a few hypothetical questions. Partner opened 1NT (15-17, can have 5M) and for a second I wondered about bidding 2♣ regular Stayman (doesn't include light invites with 5(+)♠ though) instead of the normal transfer. After a 2♦ or 2♥ response you'd probably be in a decent spot, but you might miss a better ♠ fit (especially after a 2♥ response). How much merit does it have in your opinion? - If 1NT-2♣-2red-2♠ would be INV with 5+♠, would you start with 2♣ or transfer (planning to signoff)?- If 1NT-2♣-2red-2♠ would NOT be INV with 5+♠, would you start with 2♣ or transfer?- If you decide to transfer, partner super accepts, and you can show ♣ shortness now, would you do it or would you just retransfer to 3♠?- If the Majors were reversed, would you consider 2♣ regular Stayman now? IMO2♥ = 10, 2♣ = 5.2♥ = 10, 2♣ = 7.3♥ = 10, 3♣ = 5.2♦ = 10, 2♣ = 8.Welcome back Lurpoa Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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