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What does this bid mean?


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1NT - 2

2 - 2?

 

Strong 1NT, 2 is standard Stayman, could be weak with 5-4 or longer majors.

What does 2 mean?

2S = either of 2 types of hands [ EDIT: Not standard, but one of many treatments ] :

 

1) 8-9 hcp w/4s but not 4h or

 

2)4s/6m, weak

 

Continuations after: 1NT - 2C, 2H - 2S, ....

Opener - Responder

2NT - p ( hand # 1 )

 

2NT - 3C/3D ( hand # 2 )

 

3C - p ( hand # 2 w/6c)

3C - 3D ( hand # 2 w/6d )

 

3S ( max, 4s for Opener )

3S - p ( hand # 2 )

3S - 4S ( hand # 1 )

Edited by TWO4BRIDGE
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As Mgoetze said, there is no standard meaning. I can think of at least five reasonably common interpretations (gf relay, inv with 5, f1 with 4, agreeing hearts, nf with 4, and an extra one my mother once did - five spades and five diamonds, intending to pass a 2 response, but raise 2 to game) but without discussion, one should not make such a bid, and should tend to flounder along with 2NT if in the hot seat. The best usage will depend on the rest of your system over 1NT, hence the lack of uniformity.
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I can think of at least five reasonably common interpretations (gf relay, inv with 5, f1 with 4, agreeing hearts, nf with 4, and an extra one my mother once did - five spades and five diamonds, intending to pass a 2 response, but raise 2 to game)

You missed a couple - Baron range ask (that is, either a normal 2NT without 4 spades or a hand looking for a minor suit slam); and a transfer showing clubs. But agree with everything you wrote, especially the part about the optimal meaning being dependant on the rest of the 1NT structure. For example, Baron only makes sense if playing non-promisary Stayman, since otherwise there are no 2NT invites without 4 spades!

 

Playing with a pick-up American N/B partner, the sequence is essentially identical to 1NT - 2; 2 - 2NT when playing transfers. Playing natral weak takeouts though, I would assume 2 is invitational with 5 spades. And with an Acol partner, 2 is most likely to be weak, not dissimilar to the version of Mrs King.

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Stayman can be a two edged sword. It should never be used thoughtlessly. The "Staymanner" should be prepared for any

response partner makes. From the bidding p has shown a 4 card major but,cruicially, he has not denied holding4

Holding 4 only p would bid 2thereby denying holding 4 The correct bid is bid 2NT if not holding 4 spades

and 3 inviting game in the suit if the "Staymanner" has 10+ points.

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Sorry for adding to the posts but I am hoping this is helpful. Were you playing 4 suit transfers? If you were not, then ignore this post and get what you can from the earlier posts. If you were (or your partner thought you were) then 2 in this sequence shows exactly 4 spades, denies 4 hearts and is forcing. This is because (playing 4 suit transfers) responder does not promise a 4 card major when he Staymans and rebids 2NT.
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When you bid stayman here you have to lead the 1nt bidder by the nose.

 

2 shows exactly 4 spades and exactly invitational values. Opener can place the contract and if they are 4-4 in the majors, this may be it. If you bid 2nt in stead and don't promise 4 spades they are twisting In the wind and even if you do they may have a problem. I's not about avoiding problems on your side, it's about solving partners before they happen.

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Ggwhiz, this depends on the system you are using. For many (and probably most around the world to be honest) Stayman followed by 2NT over 2 does promise 4 spades. Sp your statement is simply untrue. 2 might show this for you and your methods but it is bad advice to a N/B player to say that this is the definitive answer. As I pointed out above, the expected meaning without agreement is likely to be different according to where CHO comes from and what level they have.
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When you bid stayman here you have to lead the 1nt bidder by the nose.

 

2 shows exactly 4 spades and exactly invitational values. Opener can place the contract and if they are 4-4 in the majors, this may be it. If you bid 2nt in stead and don't promise 4 spades they are twisting In the wind and even if you do they may have a problem. I's not about avoiding problems on your side, it's about solving partners before they happen.

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When you bid stayman here you have to lead the 1nt bidder by the nose.

 

2 shows exactly 4 spades and exactly invitational values. Opener can place the contract and if they are 4-4 in the majors, this may be it. If you bid 2nt in stead and don't promise 4 spades they are twisting In the wind and even if you do they may have a problem. I's not about avoiding problems on your side, it's about solving partners before they happen.

"The race may not got to the swift nor the battle to the strong,but that's the way to bet it."

Disagree. Remember the fable about the tortoise and the hare and the story about David and Goliath(!) ;)

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1NT - 2

2 - 2?

 

Strong 1NT, 2 is standard Stayman, could be weak with 5-4 or longer majors.

What does 2 mean?

 

There are two common (and quite standard) meanings:

 

1) If you play 4-suit transfers (i.e., 1N-2S is a xfer to clubs, and 1N-2N is a xfer to diamonds), then this sequence shows an invitational hand with 4 spades and without 4 hearts.

[Playing 4-suit transfers, you'll have to bid 2C followed by 2N to make a balanced invitation as responder. Since opener can still have 4 spades here (along with the 4 hearts he's promised), responder bids 2S with a 4 card spade suit to check or 2N with no 4 card major.]

 

2) If you do not play 4-suit transfers (i.e., 1N-2N is invitational), then this sequence usually shows an invitational hand with 5 spades and 4 hearts.

[With an inv hand with 5S and < 4 hearts, you'd transfer to spades and bid 2N.]

 

As others have mentioned, there are many other possible meanings. There is a lot of discussion in these responses that I consider inappropriate for the novice and beginner forum, but hopefully you can glean some info out of some of them. The upvoted posts are a good place to start.

 

Welcome to the forums. If you can successfully perform triage on the responses, there is a lot of value to be gained from posting here. Cheers.

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Sorry for adding to the posts but I am hoping this is helpful. Were you playing 4 suit transfers? If you were not, then ignore this post and get what you can from the earlier posts. If you were (or your partner thought you were) then 2 in this sequence shows exactly 4 spades, denies 4 hearts and is forcing. This is because (playing 4 suit transfers) responder does not promise a 4 card major when he Staymans and rebids 2NT.

There is no reason for this bid to be forcing; for just about all Stayman players, 3NT over 2 promises 4 spades.

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2) If you do not play 4-suit transfers (i.e., 1N-2N is invitational), then this sequence usually shows an invitational hand with 5 spades and 4 hearts.

This is what I would assume with a random partner and no discussion. But as the various responses show, there is much room for error. Usually in such a situation, the discussion (or argument) will follow afterwards. If people would realize that there is not one right answer, then the latter could be avoided.

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