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Invites Game?


HeartA

  

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  1. 1. What would you continue



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You open 1 with A K Q 10 9 x x x A 10 x x x, partner raises to 2. How would you continue?
Agree with Two4Bridge. IMO 4 = 10, 4 = 8, 3 = 6, Pass = 5, 3 = 4, Pass = 2.
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Since it sounds like you don't play Short Suit Game tries (assuming no splinters, but might be wrong), I will just blast 4. I will concede that partner could have a great fitting hand for us, but I'm willing to give that up for hands where the points don't mesh well, but we make it because of no information leakage.
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Since it sounds like you don't play Short Suit Game tries (assuming no splinters, but might be wrong), I will just blast 4. I will concede that partner could have a great fitting hand for us, but I'm willing to give that up for hands where the points don't mesh well, but we make it because of no information leakage.

a casual partner, not many conventions.

 

At the table, I bid 3D, pd with 2 aces (H & C) bid game. At the other table, South bid 4H directly. I thought 3D was the better way.

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I use to play both long and short suit trials. Yes, there are hands that suit these perfectly, but in this instance I will just bid 4H. Who knows, this may even get you a favourable lead.

A froiend watched the Hacket twins a while back, on hands like this they just make game tries by bidding game and then trying to make it.

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Ageee with Two4Bridge. IMO 4 = 10, 4 = 8, 3 = 6, 3 = 4
A friend watched the Hacket twins a while back, on hands like this they just make game tries by bidding game and then trying to make it.
Also called a Landy try (after Sandra Landy).
I don't understand Nigel's high rating of 4 --- certainly not a self-splinter slam try after a mere 2 raise; and certainly not just so the opponents will know we have club shortness.
I think the hand is worth only 4 but it is as near to a 4 slam-try as it is to a 3 game-try.
8 is not a high rating on Nige1's scale.
5-9 = Not my preference but an action that could well work. I should give 2 to Pass.
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I use to play both long and short suit trials. Yes, there are hands that suit these perfectly, but in this instance I will just bid 4H. Who knows, this may even get you a favourable lead.

A froiend watched the Hacket twins a while back, on hands like this they just make game tries by bidding game and then trying to make it.

This sounds like one of the locals here whose name is associated with this sort of thing.

 

A Melvin slam try is to bid a slam and try to make it.

 

A Melvin slam invite is to bid a slam and invite partner to make it.

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Agree with Two4Bridge. IMO 4 = 10, 4 = 8, 3 = 6, Pass = 5, 3 = 4, Pass = 2.

 

I do not understand why anyone would consider an autosplinter of 4C. A 4C bid is worth zero as it could easily lead to a bad slam.

Nigel 4C = 8 coupled with Pass = 5 mean your ratigs have lost any credibility.

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I do not understand why anyone would consider an autosplinter of 4C. A 4C bid is worth zero as it could easily lead to a bad slam. Nigel 4C = 8 coupled with Pass = 5 mean your ratings have lost any credibility.

I don't expect you to agree with my ordering of alternatives but to me it seems a more useful approach than the common My choice = full marks, other choices = zero :).

Here for example, my initial reaction was that a 3 try, followed by 4 over 3, is more likely to lead to a daft slam than than an immediate 4 splinter. And yes, of course, I may be wrong (again) -- it's just my opinion :(

Sometimes, the OP is aware that he did the wrong thing and he just wants opinions on how bad his action was and what other options might have worked better :)

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Here for example, my initial reaction was that a 3 try, followed by 4 over 3, is more likely to lead to a daft slam than than an immediate 4 splinter.

Not with you here. I can't imagine bidding game after making a game try which is denied. Why do that? My choice is a game try (say 3) and pass 3 if that is partner's decision. Surely this is better than 4? (I would argue that it is better than 4, too.)

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... Then I remind myself of what methods I am playing.
My initial reaction was that a 3 try, followed by 4 over 3, is more likely to lead to a daft slam than than an immediate 4 splinter. And yes, of course, I may be wrong (again).
Not with you here. I can't imagine bidding game after making a game try which is denied. Why do that? My choice is a game try (say 3) and pass 3 if that is partner's decision. Surely this is better than 4? (I would argue that it is better than 4, too.)
Fair enough. 3 intending to pass 3 does seem better than a 4 splinter. IMO, however, a jump to 4 is better than either. We're entitled to our opinions and, as jallerton points out, the right action may depend on partnership agreement. For example, some partnerships bid 1N first with non-constructive raises.
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I actually like splintering with the hand, you know, just in case partner's 2 raise is exactly AKx of hearts and Kx of diamonds, which he chose to down play to a simple raise... and diamonds are no worse than 4-3... and hearts are 2-2 or 3-1 with a stiff J... and a trump promotion is not forged by continually entering hand after a spade lead.
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I actually like splintering with the hand, you know, just in case partner's 2 raise is exactly AKx of hearts and Kx of diamonds, which he chose to down play to a simple raise... and diamonds are no worse than 4-3... and hearts are 2-2 or 3-1 with a stiff J... and a trump promotion is not forged by continually entering hand after a spade lead.

Heh :P Nice one.

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I actually like splintering with the hand, you know, just in case partner's 2 raise is exactly AKx of hearts and Kx of diamonds, which he chose to down play to a simple raise... and diamonds are no worse than 4-3... and hearts are 2-2 or 3-1 with a stiff J... and a trump promotion is not forged by continually entering hand after a spade lead.

Heh :P Nice one.

Well done! Luckily, partner held x x x x A x x x x A x x x :)

Seriously, HeartA, you told us partner had two aces but what was his hand and how many tricks did you male in 4?

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