Curls77 Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 Hi allWhat is the best, or proper way to find this grand slam in minor? We play pretty basic 2/1. EW are silent through out. IMPs [hv=pc=n&s=sjhadakt3ckqj9743&n=sa9hqj8dj98762ca8&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1dp2cp]266|200|2C is GF[/hv] Also, could South prefer to play in ♣ ?Thanks Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
manudude03 Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 After 1D-2C-2D, I like to play that 3S still shows 4 card support (with 3, either rebid a 4 card major or just raise), so bidding 7m or 7N becomes trivial here. 1D-2C-2D-3S-4C-4D/H/N (depending on what asks for key cards)- 2+Q response, 7N. Maybe 7m is "safer" so far as you only go 1 down if diamonds are 3-0 offside, but you're losing at MPs and 2 imps a lot of the time) 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 1D-3C (fit jump)3NT-4D4S-4NT (North should cue - his hand is not terrible, he has two aces and six trumps, he already denied slam interest but partner is trying anyway; South asks for keycards)5S-7NT (North fakes the DQ knowing of a ten-card fit, South can count fifteen tricks) If South starts with 2C I think it would go 2D-4D (or maybe a 3S splinter as manudude03 suggests, if you have that agreement). Then continue as above from 4S. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 After N opens 1♦, S can pretty much keycard in ♦ as soon as he knows N has at least 4, N will show the Q♦ with the known 10 card fit and S will bid 7N. My auction if I didn't play fit jumps would be 1♦-2♣-2♦-4♥(keycard)-5♦(2+)-7N My actual auction playing a 4 card diamond would be to ask aces straight over 1♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 My actual auction playing a 4 card diamond would be to ask aces straight over 1♦And you will get a response denying the ♦Q. Now what? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 And you will get a response denying the ♦Q. Now what?Good question.In my auction, Responder would know of partner's 5+ cards ♦ but not know of a sure 6 cards.I'd have to stop in 6D . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 And you will get a response denying the ♦Q. Now what?Of course I won't, I've shown 4+ diamonds by asking aces with 4♥ (3♥ is the void for us) and partner has 6 so he'll show the Q. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 My actual auction playing a 4 card diamond would be to ask aces straight over 1♦You would not consider a 1NT opening then? That makes it a more interesting problem I think. Playing relay responses you can find out about North's 6 diamonds at the 2 level via: 1♦ - 1♥ = INV+ relay1♠ = min without 4 spades (unless 4441/4450)... - 1NT = GF relay2♦ = 6+ diamonds, no other 4 card suit, which makes it pretty trivial. Why specifically grand in a minor by the way? 7NT looks reasonable too. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Curls77 Posted August 5, 2013 Author Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 So, it would be a big mistake from N to conceal diamond lenght and bid 2N to show min hand but with both majors stopped? Why specifically grand in a minor by the way? 7NT looks reasonable too.You're right.. So long minors and double fit blinded us, we didn't even realize there is a play in NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bd71 Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 My partner and I play 2/1 with a handful of extras. I think our auction would go: 1♦ 2♣* *Unambiguous game-force2♦* 3♠** *5+♦, could still hold 4cM **Splinter, extent of ♦ fit undiscussed3N* 4♦** *Non-serious **Minorwood (If opener likes his two aces and bids 4♣ with "serious" interest, it proceeds the same regardless.)4N* 6♦** *2 w/o Q, North might believe we have only 6-3 fit, so won't fake the Q **South might see only 5-4 fit, so won't go 7 w/o the Q despite all keycards and counting Cliffs notes: due to likely uncertainty on both sides about extent of diamond fit, we would peter out in 6♦ Lesson: have an agreement that splinters always guarantee a 9-card fit based on what non-splintering partner has shown. With that agreement, or if North makes that assumption during the auction even without the agreement, I think this grand is easy. Good illustrative auction to take back to partner... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 The only challenge here is does North show ♦Q here or not. The rest of the bidding is fairly trivial. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 Of course I won't, I've shown 4+ diamonds by asking aces with 4♥ (3♥ is the void for us) and partner has 6 so he'll show the Q.Ah ok, understand. Will partner also do this with 5 diamonds? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 So, it would be a big mistake from N to conceal diamond lenght and bid 2N to show min hand but with both majors stopped?Not big, somewhat unlucky. I would also have problems to find the 10th diamond. Rebidding 1NT with that shape would be pretty normal as it is a cheap bid, but rebidding 2NT over 2♣ on the contrary is not that good, if fact I play 1♦-2♣-2NT with some partners as maximum (14), rebidding 2♦ even with 3 cards when minimum. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 Opener has a clear 2♦ rebid, not sure though if responder's 3♠ is a splinter for ♦ or a self-splinter. Either way, South can always use Blacky once trumps are set. The real difficulty is if North shows the ♦Q. If he doesn't (5♥ response over Blacky), then perhaps 5NT should be some kind of ask for extra trump length (since 5♠ is King ask). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 You would not consider a 1NT opening then? That makes it a more interesting problem I think. Would be equally easy for us over a 1N opener. 1N-2♠(signoff one minor or GF slam interest both)3♣(4+♦)-4♥(keycard ♦, at least 5-4 in the minors either way round)5♦(can afford to show Q)-7N Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 Ah ok, understand. Will partner also do this with 5 diamonds?No, he needs to be pretty sure you have 10 between the 2 hands, so you can miss grand on 5-5 fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted August 5, 2013 Report Share Posted August 5, 2013 don't think north has to show QD. 2d must show 6d here I don't rebid jxxxx in fact I almost never rebid a 5 card suit. I just ace ask over 2d, nothing fancy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted August 6, 2013 Report Share Posted August 6, 2013 don't think north has to show QD. 2d must show 6d here I don't rebid jxxxx in fact I almost never rebid a 5 card suit. I just ace ask over 2d, nothing fancy.This is fine in 2/1 some other systems have to rebid 2♦ with 5♦/4M and insufficient to reverse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted August 6, 2013 Report Share Posted August 6, 2013 Would be equally easy for us over a 1N opener.Does your regular partner read these forums? If not, I would be interested if you gave them this 7-4 hand blind whether they chose to treat it as "both minors" or "one-suited with clubs". If they choose the latter then finding the 3rd round diamond "control" becomes interesting. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lycier Posted August 6, 2013 Report Share Posted August 6, 2013 Hi allWhat is the best, or proper way to find this grand slam in minor? We play pretty basic 2/1. EW are silent through out. IMPs [hv=pc=n&s=sjhadakt3ckqj9743&n=sa9hqj8dj98762ca8&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1dp2cp]266|200|2C is GF[/hv] Also, could South prefer to play in ♣ ?Thanks It is a simple question,the sequences are at below:[hv=d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1dp2c(GF)p2d(five%20cards%20plus)p4d(minorwood%5BRKCB%5D)p4n(2%20key%20cards)p7dppp]133|100[/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted August 6, 2013 Report Share Posted August 6, 2013 Does your regular partner read these forums? If not, I would be interested if you gave them this 7-4 hand blind whether they chose to treat it as "both minors" or "one-suited with clubs". If they choose the latter then finding the 3rd round diamond "control" becomes interesting.No he doesn't, but we have ways of showing that it's lots-4 if partner doesn't immediately show 4 diamonds and 1N-3♣ (our good hand with clubs) specifically denies another 4 card suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted August 7, 2013 Report Share Posted August 7, 2013 Ah ok, understand.Will partner also do this with 5 diamonds? No, he needs to be pretty sure you have 10 between the 2 hands, so you can miss grand on 5-5 fit.Bill, if you as teller know that there is a 10 card fit, and asker doesn't, you reply as if you have the queen because with 10 cards the queen drops on a 2-1 break, and in some of the 3-0 breaks you can finesse the second round. With only a 9 card fit there is a much bigger chance of losing a trick. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted August 7, 2013 Report Share Posted August 7, 2013 I love the absolute certainty that so many posters seem to feel about their own methods. As an example, we have players asserting that over opener's 2♦ rebid (a call with which I agree...we should never conceal a 6 card suit if possible, and there is lots of time to bid notrump later), an immediate keycard promises 4 card support, so opener can show the non-existent Queen. I am not saying that this is unplayable. Playing my preferred methods, it makes perfect sense, but this is because I use 2♦ as a catch-all bid by opener, and I don't show any extra length at all. When opener could bid that way with 4 diamonds, and responder takes control by keycarding, it is probably fairly safe to play this method. However, I don't see it at all in standard methods, wherein the 2♦ bid promises at least 5 diamonds. Give responder x Ax Axx AKQJxxx and the response to keycard is all he needs to count tricks. Partner shows KQxxxx but only holds Kxxxxx and we will end up in a grand needing 2-2 diamonds, which is not a good spot. Then we have a player saying that 2♦ usually delivers a 6 card suit. These approaches, which all make bidding grand trivial, are non-standard yet are being posted in the I/A forum by players who write as if their treatments are normal. In reality, I think this hand is more complex than these players are willing to admit. Assuming that 2♦ shows 5 or more, then responder might well keycard, expecting partner to usually hold the Q, and then he has to make a guess. If partner holds only 5 diamonds, the suit might behave and he might hold 6 in which case we are strong favourites. I wouldn't bid grand knowing that we need a 2-3 break (or a restricted choice should he be 9xxxx!) but I might if I knew it was at worst on a 2-2 break. He'd need to be 5332, and not willing or able to rebid 2N, and surely most 5332 hands with no diamond card above the J would be able to bid 2N. So I might well take the gamble. Responder might anticipate this problem and set trump. I wouldn't splinter because I want to control the auction. I would bid 3♦. Now partner bids 3N to slow things down. I bid 4♦ to force a cuebid, and while I am maybe biased, I think this sequence definitely shows the 4th trump. Over a 4♠ cue, my 4N would (not for me, but for most) be keycard and now, due to partner having raised diamonds twice and shown very strong slam interest, I would own to the diamond Q. That makes 7N a reasonable gamble. It is almost always cold. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
monikrazy Posted August 8, 2013 Report Share Posted August 8, 2013 I agree with 2♦ rebid by opener. Even though this does not always promise 6, its very important responder knows that we did not open a 3 or 4 card suit. Responder can then set trump with 3d (forcing), we can cue our spade control, and responder should have no trouble getting us to slam from there . NT should be safest as we have risk of ruff in both non-trump minor. As to the problem of how can responder check whether opener has 5 or 6 diamonds (and thus how large of a danger the outstanding Q presents) - what would a jump to 5c or 6c by responder after 3d promise? Could either of those bids help find the grand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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