Opening Bid

[dickiegera]

[hv=pc=n&n=sa853hakq6daqt5ck]133|100[/hv]

 

Partner and I different thoughts on this hand.

 

I say that I would open this 2NT.

 

He chose to open1♦ and I responded 1NT.

He now bid 2♥, my suggestion was 2NT or 3NT.

 

Holding xxx,Jx,Jxx,A10987 I bid 3♦, he now bid 5♦ down 4. Could have saved it a trick or 2.

Diamonds were 6-0.

 

My thoughts are that by opening 1♦ if I bid a major even a 4 of that major is an underbid by opener and we could

easily miss a slam. 1NT reply by me creates a problem also. Opening 1♦ creates a rebid problem. Opening 2NT does not created as

much a problem.

 

Opinions appreciated.

Thank you

[mike777]

2nt or 1d then 2h is fine.

 

over 3d pard should rebid 3nt not 5d,

 

If you respond a major pard can splinter and bid again.

[gszes]

dont let the results of 1 hand sway your thinking forever-- opening 2n with singleton

club could have turned out to be a compete disaster if you have a dia fit. IMO the 1d

opening followed by 2h was fine but over 3d opener should follow with 3s still searching

for 3n. over the 3s bid responder will have an extrmemly accurate impression of

openers hand and in this case has an easy 3n. Other hands could get us to 5d.

 

Not sure why opener suddenly gave up the search for 3n but that's where things went

wrong. Remember majors NT then minors as last resort because they require more

assets to make.

[GreenMan]

Hmm, surprised to see so many votes for 1♦ then 2♥, since players in ACBL-land overwhelmingly treat this as 4♥ 5♦ (if they understand about reverses at all), as the OP seems to have done. After partner skips over both majors to bid 1NT I'd raise to 3 without a second thought.

 

I slightly prefer 1♦ to open, but if my partner opted for 2NT I wouldn't second-guess him.

[nige1]

[hv=pc=n&n=sa853hakq6daqt5ck]133|100|

Partner and I different thoughts on this hand. I say that I would open this 2NT.

He chose to open1♦ and I responded 1NT. He now bid 2♥, my suggestion was 2NT or 3NT. Holding

♠ x x x ♥ J x ♦ J x x ♣ A 10 9 8 7 I bid 3♦,

he now bid 5♦ down 4. Could have saved it a trick or 2. Diamonds were 6-0.

My thoughts are that by opening 1♦ if I bid a major even a 4 of that major is an underbid by opener and we could easily miss a slam. 1NT reply by me creates a problem also. Opening 1♦ creates a rebid problem. Opening 2NT does not created as much a problem.[/hv]

IMO

• As opener: 1♦ = 10, 2N = 9, 1♥ = 8. (3N is best, but 4H is playable even on the 4-2 fit)
• After 1♦ - 1N -: 2♥ = 10, 3N = 9, 2N = 8.
• After 1♦ - 1N -; 2♥ - 3♦: 3N = 10, 3♠ = 5

[the hog]

I would have opened 2NT. 1D followed by 2H shows 5D and 4H for everyone I know.

As the bidding went, after your 3D bid, he should have bid 3S. Your 3D bid is totally correct; if you bid 3NT without a S stopper here and xxx in S as suggested above, this is very poor.

[Free]

Why would you open 2NT anyway, unless that includes 22 counts. I'd just open 2♣ and rebid 2NT (showing 22-23), unless partner gives me some kind of positive response (which is not the case here). Opening NT isn't ideal though, because with a fit the hand has much more potential than you've shown. A ♦ fit can easily be lost. On the other hand, opening 1♦ and bidding 2NT next shows only 18-19HCP, which is even worse. Reversing shows 5+♦ but that's only a small lie ofcourse. Still it's a matter how you rate the stiff ♣K. Optimists open their NT range (hoping ♣K will count), pessimists open 1♦ (afraid that their ♣K will drop under opps' Ace). When you open 1♦, all you can do is reverse. However, after 1♦-1NT-2♥-3♦ you can still pattern out with 3♠, after which partner can easily bid 3NT with such a ♣ stack.

[Cyberyeti]

I would open 1♦ almost always because I'm not sure what my hand is worth as a point count value.

 

It helps that playing what I play I can show an 18+ 4441 with support with an unusual rebid.

 

I would have bid 3N rather than 5♦ on your sequence though.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

#1 2NT is certainly a reasonable choice, 1D has a rebid problem,

but 1D is certainly not wrong.

#2 over 1NT bid 3NT, 2H should show 54.

The 1NT bidder will have clubs, he has limited his hand, will

have at most 10 HCP, bid the most likely contract, and get out of

the auction.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe