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What is this bid in std methods ?


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I don't know if there's a standard meaning. The two meanings I have played are:

- Asking for a stopper, with something like AK10xxx of a minor and nothing else.

- One-suited slam try in an unspecified suit (or unspecified major).

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3 of a suit over the one-bid looks like one of our opening 3-bids in our style.

3 in a suit under is a mama-papa 5+ suit with 9-11 or so expected.

3 of their suit ---don't think I have ever done that. Will await some good answers.

 

I meant the x suit is the suit they opened with. Sorry if this was not clear. So basically i am asking a jump cuebid when pd doubled and RHO passed.

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We play it as a single-suited game force in a (or the other) major. Also if third hand bids at the 1-level (e.g. 1D dbl 1H 3D - still an unspecified major)

I don't think there is a standard.

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I strongly suspect that most of my partners, if I made this bid, would have no clue what it meant. But then most of my current partners, when I suggest that we should discuss such things, are not interested.

 

I probably need some new partners. :blink:

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There is no standard meaning that I know of. Most of the sensible meanings have already been mentioned but one that has not come up yet is differentiating between 4 and 5 card jumps; so (1) - X - (P) - 3 could be played as extras with 5+ spades. Some players even give up a 3 advance for this so it has to be sound. Of course, this does not work if their suit is spades and if their suit were a minor, you would have to choose which major was shown. It is probably not even worth the effort to even define the bid for non-expert partnerships. As Adam wrote, it will often be defined as a stopper-ask just by general meta-rules.
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I'd think it's a stopper ask, although I don't think it's good use and moreover I don't think I've ever encountered this auction. Doubler rates to be short in opener's suit, so usually he doesn't have a stopper anyway.
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I'm pretty sure that Meckwell use (1M) - X - (P) - 3M as a transfer to 3NT. I don't know, but I could see (1m) - X - (P) - 3m as the same. I know Garozzo, in his system Ambra, came up with uses for every bid up to and including 3NT on 1x - (X), so why not just use those same bids?
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I'm pretty sure that Meckwell use (1M) - X - (P) - 3M as a transfer to 3NT. I don't know, but I could see (1m) - X - (P) - 3m as the same. I know Garozzo, in his system Ambra, came up with uses for every bid up to and including 3NT on 1x - (X), so why not just use those same bids?

 

Meckwell [and others] play 1D (1M) 3M as a transfer to 3N to put overcaller on lead. Why would you choose to put opener's partner on lead after 1M-X-P?

 

After 1x - (X) lots of bids are raises of x, it would make no sense to play the same scheme after (1x)-X-(P).

 

Add me to the chorus of people who haven't discussed the call and wouldn't make it at the table.

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I'm pretty sure that Meckwell use (1M) - X - (P) - 3M as a transfer to 3NT. I don't know, but I could see (1m) - X - (P) - 3m as the same. I know Garozzo, in his system Ambra, came up with uses for every bid up to and including 3NT on 1x - (X), so why not just use those same bids?

 

As I know, though Garozzo use transfers on 2x or higher bids, he wrote that 3x-1 shows a GF balanced hand, which (I think) is just a stopper ask.

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