New Hand

[barsikb]

Dealer: South, Vul: None

 

[hv=pc=n&s=s96432haq7d4c8765&w=sakjthk2daqj8cjt9&n=s85ht8654dt92cq32&e=sq7hj93dk7653cak4]399|300[/hv]

[barsikb]

Does this make any sense?

 

1♦-2♦ (InvMin)

2♥(Control up the ladder) - 3♣

4NT(0314 in ♦) - 5♥

6♦(or 6NT)

[ArtK78]

Not an unreasonable sequence. Once responder cue bids clubs, RKCB is ok, as you can't be off the first two club tricks.

 

Bidding 6NT is very greedy, and works well on this layout. It wouldn't work nearly as well if you reverse the NS hands.

 

By the way, Barb, you didn't specify if the inverted minor raise was game forcing or only forcing one round. If it is game forcing, then opener has more reason to believe that there is a slam here, and that 6NT might be the right contract.

[barsikb]

Actually, I learned InvMin 2D as 10+. What is the common treatment? Yes, not knowing there is GF value, makes it difficult for West to decide on slam.

 

Any better solutions?

[mr1303]

2NT 6NT

 

Job done

[ArtK78]

The auction was fine even given that the inverted minor raise was only 10+HCP.

 

I don't like mr1303's suggestion at all. 6♦ is a much better contract than 6NT. Assuming proper play, you get to try both rounded suit finesses in 6♦ in search of your 12th trick. In 6NT you have to decide to play on hearts or clubs. Also, 6NT may go down more than 6♦ when they both fail.

[wank]

2nt-6nt

[Vampyr]

Actually, I learned InvMin 2D as 10+. What is the common treatment?

 

This.

[barsikb]

2NT is 20-21 right?What is the reason to open this 19HCP hand with 2NT? Very good quality?

[ArtK78]

I suspect the reason is that they like to open 2NT.

 

Or, they feel that the 2NT opening will make the auction easier (which is another way to say that they are lazy).

 

I would not open the hand 2NT, but I have a partner that would.

[wank]

i said 2NT because I rated it as 20 due to the fitting intermediates - jt9 is nice, as is akj10. even the 8 of diamonds is potentially a useful card.

 

but yes 6d is a better contract.

 

fwiw i stuck it in the k+r hand evaluator when my judgment was questioned and it says exactly 20.

[mycroft]

I would expect 2NT ("both majors controlled") after 1♦-2♦. Because of that, I would have bid 3NT after 2♥ "we have enough for game, but no slam" (in this case because we're off two spade tricks, but in other cases because I'm just a minimum GF), and would be quite surprised when opener continued (which she should).

[ArtK78]

I would expect 2NT ("both majors controlled") after 1♦-2♦. Because of that, I would have bid 3NT after 2♥ "we have enough for game, but no slam" (in this case because we're off two spade tricks, but in other cases because I'm just a minimum GF), and would be quite surprised when opener continued (which she should).

Except that the original poster says that her inverted minor shows 10+ HCP, so it is possible that a 2NT rebid by opener could be dropped. If 2NT is forcing, I have no problem with that rebid.